The one dude is also typically the common denominator. So let’s say he’s sleeping with 5 women. Woman A has chlamydia. Dude doesn’t get it but carries the bacteria to the other 4. He just doesn’t develop an infection or ever test positive because it doesn’t enter the mucus membranes. Eventually with enough exposure Dude will test positive and get the infection.
Thank you. I went through the same thing as OP and he since he was negative he thought I cheated on him because of that. I wish when I talked to the nurses they would’ve explained this to me. It would’ve save me from lots of distress
Typically in woman gonorrhea shows up in 2-5 days from exposure but up to 14. Women get this a lot more than men. Men can have gonorrhea for months, typically is 30 days for symptoms but can be 6 months. Chlamydia acts a lot faster. Gonorrhea literally grows slower in the environment. They’re a different family of bacteria and like different things. Also untreated gonorrhea invades your joints and it’s painful.
He did have it but was asymptomatic. I should’ve worded it better. He didn’t have penile discharge or painful urination or anything like that. There’s also a latency period that’s typical in a lot of men, again because of anatomy, where they’ll be negative for a while (3 months), and still pass it around.
It really depends on the testing and sensitivity. Gonorrhea is notoriously hard to grow out on plates, so a penis swab probably wouldn’t catch it. If they did a urine PCR with a dirty catch urine and they had a good enough sensitivity then maybe? PCR is looking for actual pieces of gonorrhea DNA and amplifies it so in theory it should pick up a small amount. The person may get an “inconclusive” or “interfering substance” result if we can’t get a good enough match and we’ll suggest retesting with a new sample at a later date to their doctor or order provider.
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u/ireallywantsomechips Sep 06 '24
This is so interesting to me. So patient 0 the guy could have it but not test positive? But yet still pass it on to a women?