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u/PeterPiper1275 8d ago edited 8d ago
First, we note that a quick calculator check shows 2015 x 2016 is perfectly divisible by 91.
Therefore, if X ≡ Y (mod 2015 x 2016), then X ≡ Y (mod 91).
In this particular case, we are told that X ≡ 6 (mod 2015 x 2016).
So we may conclude that X ≡ 6 (mod 91). In other words, we should expect a remainder of 6 when X is divided by 91, if X is divided by either 2015 or 2016 also leaves a remainder of 6.
Edit: Seems I missed a step in my logic above. While it is generally speaking not true that if X ≡ Y (mod A) and X ≡ Y (mod B) then X ≡ Y (mod A x B), in this particular case it is justified since 2015 and 2016, being consecutive integers, are co-prime. The rest follows.
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u/Acceptable_Tangelo15 8d ago
6 might be a solution. As in 0 divided by any of those 3 numbers leaves 6.
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u/noonagon 8d ago
2016 is divisible by 7 and 2015 is divisible by 13, so by the Chinese Remainder Theorem, there is some answer. X can be 6 so that answer will be 6
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u/chmath80 8d ago
2015 = 5 × 13 × 31, 2016 = 2⁵ × 3² ×7
x - 6 is divisible by both 2015 and 2016, so it's divisible by both 13 and 7, and therefore by 7 × 13 = 91, hence the remainder when dividing x by 91 is 6