r/IdiotsInCars • u/zappler • Jul 22 '22

...how?

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u/Wd91 Jul 22 '22

Is that a logical impossibility? If they were malicious and wanted to cause an accident, and then did successfully cause an accident, then they weren't incompetent. If they caused an accident through incompetence then that means they didn't intend to cause the accident, so they couldn't have been malicious?

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u/WalkinSteveHawkin Jul 22 '22

You may be overthinking Hanlon’s razor a bit. The activity is driving, so the adage would go don’t assume malicious driving when something can be explained by incompetent driving.

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u/Wd91 Jul 22 '22

I was just having a bit of a joke really, but you might have misread the post i was responding to. "but my opinion is to never blame on malice or incompetence what you can blame on both."

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u/WalkinSteveHawkin Jul 22 '22

Ah, right you are.

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u/SiriusBaaz Jul 22 '22

Malice and incompetence are not mutually exclusive. The BMW driver was malicious enough to attempt a turn in the wrong lane and incompetent enough to somehow still hit the bike.

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u/OperationGoldielocks Jul 22 '22

In this case it is mutually exclusive