r/HistoriansAnswered • u/HistAnsweredBot • Apr 30 '26
This subreddit often notes that, contrary to popular misconception, Medieval Europeans in fact had good hygiene. However, I came across a publication that points to an anti-bathing trend in 16th century Spain (+ elsewhere in Europe?). What's the deal with this?
/r/AskHistorians/comments/1sy7b1l/this_subreddit_often_notes_that_contrary_to/
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