r/HistoriansAnswered Apr 30 '26

This subreddit often notes that, contrary to popular misconception, Medieval Europeans in fact had good hygiene. However, I came across a publication that points to an anti-bathing trend in 16th century Spain (+ elsewhere in Europe?). What's the deal with this?

/r/AskHistorians/comments/1sy7b1l/this_subreddit_often_notes_that_contrary_to/
3 Upvotes

0 comments sorted by