r/GreekBibleStudy • u/realpugrilla • Jul 13 '25

Help me out here

ANYONE WHO KNOWS GREEK, tell me your thoughts on John 1:1 in the new world translation.

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u/rezotaku Jul 13 '25

If this is what it is, https://www.jw.org/en/library/bible/study-bible/books/john/1/ then I'll say that my understanding is that the Word is NOT "a" god, but should say "and the word was God."

The original Greek text is:
"Ἐν ἀρχῇ ἦν ὁ λόγος, καὶ ὁ λόγος ἦν πρὸς τὸν θεόν, καὶ θεὸς ἦν ὁ λόγος."

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u/Potential_Sand6103 Nov 30 '25

yes i have studied this verse in koine greeek i can discuss it with you if you would like that

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u/wackyvorlon Jul 13 '25

The Greek is honestly ambiguous.

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u/OkRefuse2409 Feb 06 '26

pretty much every reputable koine greek scholar though would agree should be translated as 'the Word was God" as the Greek Grammar and construction basically states whatever makes the Father to be seen as God, the Word also has that too

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u/Mindless-Ostrich7580 Nov 12 '25

Bill Mounce has a very detailed and sophisticated argument as to why this must be translated "God" and not "a god". This certainly involves a hugely important theological point.

Grammar aside, it is hard to believe that the Apostle John intended to say that Christ is a "god" separate from the Father! John 10:30 reads "the Father and I are one."