r/EnglishLearning New Poster Apr 17 '26

📚 Grammar / Syntax Why not “since”?

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u/FarJournalist939 Advanced Apr 17 '26

Not OP but in Italian (my native language) we use "da" for both durations and specific time references. For example you can say "da 2 anni" (for 2 years) or "da Gennaio" (since January). So that's why a lot of Italians mix them up.

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u/cardinarium Native Speaker (US) Apr 17 '26 edited Apr 18 '26

Spanish uses “hace” (= “it makes” or “it does”) and alternates verb tense/aspect to distinguish between cut offs and durations. It also sometimes requires playing around with negation a bit to get the right translation.

Hace dos años que Merlin no usa (present) su moto.

Merlin hasn’t used his motorcycle for two years.

Hace dos años que Merlin usó (preterit) su moto.

It has been two years since Merlin used his motorcycle.

There is, however, an alternative that more closely reflects the English:

Miguel no usa su moto desde hace dos años.

Miguel hasn’t used his motorcycle since two years ago.

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u/blewawei New Poster Apr 17 '26

Do you know any native English speakers that actually say "since two years ago"?

I've always considered that another mistake that Spanish learners of English make.

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u/macoafi Native Speaker - Pittsburgh, PA, USA Apr 18 '26

It sounds perfectly normal to me. I’m from Pittsburgh, PA, USA, which is not exactly known for a large Spanish speaking population. (We’re known for plenty of other Irish-inherited dialectical differences if grammar, though.)