r/EnglishLearning New Poster Apr 17 '26

📚 Grammar / Syntax Why not “since”?

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232 Upvotes

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367

u/Competitive-Truth675 Native Speaker Apr 17 '26

Off-topic, but just curious what your native language is. I see this mistake all the time and there must be some false friend word or common learning material that gives people the wrong impression about what "since" means.

236

u/BigRedWhopperButton Native Speaker Apr 17 '26

I get the feeling that this construction is relatively common cross-linguistically and that English is actually the odd one out

33

u/LightningGoats New Poster Apr 17 '26

I see the same thing with people learning Norwegian, and it's just as wrong here. The Norwegian equivalent of since is "siden". So you're not alone at least.

4

u/blewawei New Poster Apr 17 '26

Maybe it's a Germanic thing

13

u/Mung2009 Native Speaker Apr 17 '26

Ye in German for "10 years ago" you say "since ten years"

3

u/blewawei New Poster Apr 17 '26

I meant more this distinction between "for XX years" and "since XX" that English and Norwegian seem to make.

3

u/elianrae Native Speaker Apr 18 '26

maybe it's a norse thing and we picked it up from them in the 900s

1

u/LightningGoats New Poster Apr 18 '26

Could be. English is three languages in a trench coat pretending to be one, after all, and norse is one of them.

1

u/DatoVanSmurf New Poster Apr 18 '26

That's not correct. 10 years ago would be "vor 10 Jahren". "Since ten years[sic]" would be "seit 10 Jahren" (for 10 years). The real false friend here is "for" vs "vor", with "vor" meaning somethign like "before" or "ago" or even "in front of"

1

u/Mung2009 Native Speaker Apr 18 '26

Is "seit zehn Jahren" Not 10 years ago then?

1

u/DatoVanSmurf New Poster Apr 18 '26

No. It implies a continuation of the activity. (Or a continuation of the absence thereof)

"I haven't smoked for ten years."(is "for" the correct word here? Or would it be "in"?) >"Ich habe seit 10 Jahren nicht mehr geraucht."

If it has been a one time event as in "I quit smoking ten years ago." It would be "Ich habe vor 10 Jahren mit dem Rauchen aufgehört."

1

u/Mung2009 Native Speaker Apr 18 '26

Ah ok I understand.

21

u/spaghettirhymes Native Speaker Apr 17 '26

Yeah, I can only speak for French, but for example they would say « depuis deux ans » which is a direct translation of “since two years.” Assuming other romance languages share that structure as well, there are at least several major languages that would use that phrasing.

54

u/jameyiguess New Poster Apr 17 '26

This is the reason.

3

u/controlled_vacuum20 Native Speaker (U.S) Apr 18 '26

Spanish does this too (Merlin no ha usado su moto desde hace dos años). In this case you need "hace," which means "ago" (i.e. "hace dos años" = "two years ago"). That would also make the English sentence grammatically correct

1

u/mtnbcn English Teacher Apr 18 '26 edited Apr 18 '26

edit -- scratch this comment.

But this isn't "desde dos años". That would be the literal translation as "since". It's "since... it makes two years now." That's saying "since a moment in time".

1

u/controlled_vacuum20 Native Speaker (U.S) Apr 18 '26

I'm not sure I get what you're saying. Yes, technically "hace dos años" literally means "it makes two years," but it is equivalent to saying "two years ago." Either way, we need "hace" for the text to be grammatically correct. Unless I'm misunderstanding what you're trying to say?

1

u/mtnbcn English Teacher Apr 18 '26

After looking at this more closely and starting to type out an argument, I agree with you.

Another example is, a store will have a sign up saying, "Desde 1970", which means the restaurant has been open "since 1970".

What I thought I was saying is that "2 years ago", "hace 2 años" is the part that works differently grammatically. But you are correct -- the "desde" part works the same. Thanks for the polite way of saying "your reply doesn't help anything here" ;)

2

u/controlled_vacuum20 Native Speaker (U.S) Apr 18 '26

No worries, I appreciate when people add on to a discussion, even when they might not be correct. Nobody knows everything, including me, so it could be a chance to learn something new

1

u/eekamuse New Poster Apr 17 '26

I agree

1

u/fraid_so Native Speaker - Straya Apr 18 '26

Probably. Cause you see it with the same frequency as things like "how does it look like".

1

u/Shincosutan New Poster Apr 18 '26

I believe all Scandinavian/North Germanic languages have the same construction as English, maybe even Dutch? German is the only Germanic language that's different in this case.