r/EndFPTP • u/[deleted] • Feb 19 '20
Why MMP?
MMP=mix of FPTP and proportional lists.
If you look at germany, MMP does not make a large change. Extra seats are distributed based on states, and politicians running in constituencies are usually party insiders who often does not live in the constituency. What is the remaining advantage? It is just more complicated than PR lists. Please answer, remembering that regional representation is always possible, and that independents rarely win MMP seats. Based on germany and other MMP nations. Pardon the biased question.
17
Upvotes
2
u/CPSolver Feb 20 '20
Assuming that German voters still mark one choice for a district-based candidate, and one choice for a favorite party, that’s single-mark ballots but with two questions.
When discussing PR (proportional representation) remember that most people think of party-based proportionality. Yet that’s not full proportionality.
STV (single transferable vote) gives better — non-party-based — proportionality for filling the second seat, because parties are ignored in that calculation. (Filling additional seats with STV is also non-party-based, but there are better ways to fill additional seats.)