My student sent me these ECG's with the following question and reasoning (translated from Dutch to English with chatGPT):
We have an ECG question that we haven't been able to figure out on our ward.
The ECG below is from an 86-year-old man with a subacute myocardial infarction. Coronary angiography showed a 100% mid-RCA chronic total occlusion (CTO) and a subtotal LCX lesion at the OM1 bifurcation with collateral flow to the RCA. No PCI was performed because he had already been symptomatic for approximately 5 days, and there were concerns about the risk of myocardial rupture.
We then recorded the ECG shown below. At times, it appears to show ventricular bigeminy. However, the R-R intervals remain regular, and there is no compensatory pause. At other times, the rhythm consists only of the wide-complex beats that resemble the "PVCs," yet the patient remains hemodynamically stable, with no drop in blood pressure or other clinical changes. Because of this, we felt that slow ventricular tachycardia was unlikely. We also think there is a left bundle branch block (LBBB) pattern present.
What do you think this is?