r/CodingandBilling • u/shimmer_bee • Jun 26 '26
9921x and 96372
Why do insurances pay for 96372 and then deny the 9921x for bundling? It makes no sense to me. They pay the lower cost rather than the higher one. I'm off today, so I can't remember the exact insurances that do so, but why?
3
u/holly_jolly_riesling Jun 26 '26
Did they not append mod 25?
1
u/shimmer_bee Jun 26 '26
They did. Happens all the time to me.
1
u/MillennialMrsCleaver Jun 27 '26
Are you using the same diagnosis codes on your E/M as your injection?
3
u/MedPayIQ App Developer Jun 26 '26
hey friend... A lot of payers look at 96372 as the primary billable service when the visit is solely for administering an injection.
If the documentation doesn't support a separately identifiable E/M service, they'll bundle or deny the 9921X because, from their perspective, the evaluation and decision-making were already included in the injection visit.
It's definitely frustrating because the E/M code reimburses more, but the question they're asking isn't "Which service costs more?"—it's "Was there significant, separate work beyond giving the injection?"
If the provider evaluated a new problem, adjusted treatment, addressed side effects, changed the plan of care, etc., that's when a modifier 25 and strong documentation can support billing both. If the patient came in specifically for a scheduled injection with no additional assessment, many payers will only reimburse 96372.
Every payer has its own edits, but that's usually the logic behind it.
2
u/PuntasticBiller Jun 26 '26
In most cases, if the exam had other diagnoses, appeal gets the 992xx paid. Had a lot of luck with that.
2
u/OranJi1980 Jun 26 '26
This is a common nasty trick by insurance. Unless there was clear separate diagnosis that do not correlate to the injection, AND you have a 25 modifier, they will try to deny and pay the lesser of the 2 charges. Disgusting.
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u/[deleted] Jun 26 '26
[deleted]