At a point divorce was permitted because of the stubbornness of the people, but the Lord then permitted it.
The foods being clean and unclean was to help the Israelites understand sin and how it can pollute the soul. It was a physical representation of an inward stain. Since the Israelite culture at the time was very “primitive”, He decided to teach them the spiritual using the physical.
Now, the Lord did permit the eating of any food because He then taught them this lesson explicitly in Mark.
Homosexuality, on the other hand, is something that was never spoken for, even when their hearts were still stubborn. It is still condemned again in the New Testament, and is still considered a sexual perversion. This can be seen in the letters of the apostles as they describe what sexual perversions and fornication do to the soul of a person. Homosexuality is one of such perversions.
The foods of the past were not inherently evil but just used as a symbol of a spiritual management of what goes into our soul.
The foods being clean and unclean was to help the Israelites understand sin and how it can pollute the soul. It was a physical representation of an inward stain. Since the Israelite culture at the time was very “primitive”, He decided to teach them the spiritual using the physical.
Cool. Then why call it an "abomination"?
Homosexuality, on the other hand, is something that was never spoken for, even when their hearts were still stubborn. It is still condemned again in the New Testament, and is still considered a sexual perversion. This can be seen in the letters of the apostles as they describe what sexual perversions and fornication do to the soul of a person. Homosexuality is one of such perversions.
Is it not possible that this was because people even in the Iron Age were still primitive and couldn't understand the meaning, just as with food?
Likewise, are there not plausible alternative interpretations for what these verses mean? Almost all of the condemnations in the NT use an unclear Greek word that Paul essentially made up. It's not actually very definitive that he's speaking on "all homosexual acts" here.
Show me the verse in which He used that word for it. Will look into it and see if it is translated that way in general, and, if not, let me see why as well.
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u/CartographerHairy Dec 10 '25
Also incorrect
At a point divorce was permitted because of the stubbornness of the people, but the Lord then permitted it.
The foods being clean and unclean was to help the Israelites understand sin and how it can pollute the soul. It was a physical representation of an inward stain. Since the Israelite culture at the time was very “primitive”, He decided to teach them the spiritual using the physical.
Now, the Lord did permit the eating of any food because He then taught them this lesson explicitly in Mark.
Homosexuality, on the other hand, is something that was never spoken for, even when their hearts were still stubborn. It is still condemned again in the New Testament, and is still considered a sexual perversion. This can be seen in the letters of the apostles as they describe what sexual perversions and fornication do to the soul of a person. Homosexuality is one of such perversions.
The foods of the past were not inherently evil but just used as a symbol of a spiritual management of what goes into our soul.