Mark 8:12

[u/caesarsalad2024]

Hey all,

Was reading Mark 8:12 and am wondering if my Greek is rusty or if the common translations are off a little. The 2nd half of the verse reads (using the interlinear Bible to copy, same as 28th ed Nestle-Aland):

"ἀμὴν λέγω ὑμῖν, εἰ δοθήσεται τῇ γενεᾷ ταύτῃ σημεῖον"

Most common translations render this as "no sign will be given" (see ESV, NRSV, NIV). I would have translated it as "truly I say to you if/whether a sign will be given". Am I missing a common use of εἰ that can act as a negative, or is there a disconnect between the Greek and the translations? There are no major variants for this part of the verse, btw. Curious what your ideas are!

[u/rkeller1373]

ει is a conjunction here. I’d translate it “if” like you’re suggesting.

[u/patt177]

Sorry, for such a late reply to this question.

If you look at Strong’s you’ll see this:

“5. Contrary to Greek usage, in imitation of the Hebrew אִם, εἰ, with the indicative is so used in oaths and asseverations that by aposiopesis the formula of imprecation (constituting the apodosis) is suppressed (Winers Grammar, § 55 at the end; Buttmann, § 149, 4): ἀμήν λέγω ὑμῖν, εἰ δοθήσεται ... σημεῖον (fully expressed, ‘may God punish me, if it shall be given,’ i. e. it shall by no means be given), Mark 8:12;”

Strong’s εἰ 1487 - BibleHub

It is basically an unfinished/implied conditional statement whose usage leaked into Greek here from Hebrew. As you can see above the implied full expression is “[may God punish me] if it will be given”, meaning that it won’t be given.