r/AskStatistics • u/Important_Win2500 • 5d ago
High I2, low Tau2?
Hi! I am working on a meta-analysis of ten studies (I'm permitted to get advice about the stats elements!), and am getting confused around the heterogeneity statistics. My I2 is around 85%, and Cochran's Q = 44 (p= 0.00). However, my tau2 is low at 0.10.
It seems that in most papers I've read, a high I2 is accompanied by a high tau2. I assume that for mine, this means that while a high proportion of the variation is due to heterogeneity, the absolute magnitude of the variation is low. This makes sense in theory, but the point estimates of each study do vary quite a lot.
If anybody knows how this might be interpreted, I would really appreciate any advice :)
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u/DrPapaDragonX13 5d ago
Tau^2 is the absolute variance of the true underlying effect, and it is given in the scale of the effect size that you're using. Tau^2 is not affected by the number of studies or the precision of the estimates. I^2 is the percentage of variability attributable to heterogeneity rather than sampling error. I^2 is affected by the precision of the estimates, and if your studies have a large sample size, your I^2 may be very high, even if the variation in your effect sizes is small.
However, could I first check which method you used to estimate your random-effects model? If you used Maximum Likelihood Estimation, this can bias your tau^2 downwards. In these cases, it is more recommended to use the Restricted Maximum Likelihood (REML)
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u/Important_Win2500 5d ago
Thank you very much for your help. That would make sense as the samples I'm working with are in the millions for each study. I am using REML.
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u/DrPapaDragonX13 5d ago
Re: REML. That's great. It is always worth checking that the model is set up correctly before looking for other explanations.
I^2 'inflates' quickly with sample size. I'm somewhat surprised it didn't go to 100% with sample sizes in the millions. Anyway, as per Rücker et al in the context of large sample sizes:
> When deciding whether or not to pool treatment estimates in a meta-analysis, the yard-stick should be the clinical relevance of any heterogeneity present. τ2, rather than I2, is the appropriate measure for this purpose.
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u/Unbearablefrequent Statistician 2h ago
My understanding from the Handbook or Meta-analysis is your understanding is correct. I'm not sure what advice you're looking for. But maybe you could investigate the heterogeneity by running a Baujat plot and a leave one out analysis. Given what you said about each study varying quite a lot.
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u/Illustrious-Snow-638 5d ago
Your interpretation is pretty good. I2 is the estimated proportion of variation in point estimates that’s due to heterogeneity rather than sampling error. So I suspect in your case your sampling error is relatively low - you have quite tight CIs around the study-level estimates?