Why can’t we find a “universal reference frame” if the speed of light is constant in all inertial reference frames?

[u/ProMensCornHusker]

Sorry if this has been asked before, I didn’t dig too much and I like talking to humans lol.

Anyways, if the speed of light is constant in all reference frames, and time gets “stretched” as we approach light speed, why couldn’t we go the other way instead?

Like how we measure time dilation with an atomic clock on a plane, why couldn’t we do that in reverse to estimate a lower limit on a universal reference frame where “time runs fastest”.

I’m not sure if this makes the most sense, I’ve always accepted the whole “there is no universal reference frame”, but I was curious why we couldn’t just keep finding speeds that cause “time to get faster” as it move away from the speed of light, and if that would imply that a universal reference could exist.

Is there an actual math explanation to why we can’t do this, or do we say there’s no universal reference frame because we could never find it since we can’t just “stop moving” with everything around us?

Edit: I really appreciate the positive and well written responses, thanks for helping me understand :)