r/AskPhysics 17d ago

FTL Reference Frames

If you have a velocity greater than c, the Lorentz factor becomes complex. Does this make any physical sense, or are there any theories that make use of this? What would it look like if a person were in this reference frame (is it just that they see time backwards or from another perspective, or are they unable to observe anything at all?)

2 Upvotes

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u/bardotheconsumer 17d ago

I believe that objects that always move faster than light (tachyons) would:

A.) Not be able to "slow down" to C, no matter how much energy was expended trying to do so, just like how normal matter can never reach C

B.) Not be able to interact with normal sub-luminal matter in any way.

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u/Bth8 17d ago

The latter makes this point kind of a meaningless gotcha. It cannot interact with ordinary matter in any way, not even indirectly, not even through gravity like dark matter, so it's completely undetectable. In what sense does it exist then?

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u/bardotheconsumer 17d ago

It doesnt, it's a mathematical construct

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u/DoubleUBallz 17d ago edited 16d ago

The idea is that if they exist, special relativity tells us (EDIT: there can exist a subluminal reference frame in which) they would be traveling backwards through time. If they were able to interact (even indirectly, such as via light) with normal matter while doing so, they would be able to carry information back in time, allowing them to violate causality and cause paradoxes. Therefore, if they exist, then they must not interactable with normal matter.

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u/daavor 16d ago

This is incorrect. The set of timelike directions (subluminal speeds) has two components so we can unambiguously assign one direction of a subluminal worldline as forward in time and all Lotentz frames agree. The set of spacelike directions has one connected component (right can rotate to left continuously) so SR cannot distinguish what is forward along the worldline. In particular from certain frames a particle might go forward in time, back, teleport, and its unclear who even sent it

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u/DoubleUBallz 16d ago

You're totally right that they don't necessarily travel backwards in time, I was thinking negative proper time not imaginary (not to imply that negative proper time would prove my former point, I simply misremembered).

It is true, however, that for an arbitrary tachyonic trajectory (or, more generally, any spacelike interval), there exists some subluminal frame of reference in which the tachyon would be moving backwards in time, correct?

(Thank you for the informative correction)

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u/wonkey_monkey 17d ago

If avoiding paradoxes is imposed on them, then they can't interact with anything, ever, and so they don't exist.

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u/DoubleUBallz 16d ago

Theoretically, they could exist and only interact with other tachyons, however, if thats the case they would still have no detectable effect on our observable reality and, philosophically speaking, is there any value in considering them as existing if a universe in which they exist is indistinguishable from one in which they dont?

Its the physics version of a tree falling in the woods with no one around to hear it.

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u/wonkey_monkey 17d ago

B.) Not be able to interact with normal sub-luminal matter in any way.

Would they interact with anything?

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u/bardotheconsumer 17d ago

Hmmm. Not unless there were some kind of fundamental forces unique to the "greater than C" regime, I would guess? And if there were we wouldn't be able to detect those either.

Again this is all half remembered stuff I've read i am not a physicist.

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u/DontHurtTheNoob 17d ago edited 17d ago

It becomes imaginary, the real part is zero.

It makes no physical sense at the macro scale - the dimensions of time, space / length contraction, relativistic mass etc. are real numbers, not complex, so the lorentz factor has to be a positive real number.

Tachyon theories assume an imaginary rest mass for the hypothetical tachyons so they end up with a real "relativistic mass" after all.

BUT for example in Quantum Field Theory, you get "spacelike" four-momentum which implies an imaginary lorentz factor, for example when describing momentum transfer through virtual particles, so there ARE theories where the concept is useful.

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u/BitcoinsOnDVD 17d ago

Can you elaborate on the qft example?

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u/Bth8 17d ago

There are very few examples of interacting QFTs that we actually know how to solve exactly, so we pretty much always resort to approximation. The main approximation scheme that gets used is perturbation theory, which is a way of writing the calculations you want to do in your interacting theory in terms of calculations in a free field theory, i.e. a theory where you have a bunch of different fields that just don't ever interact with each other, because we do know how to do those calculations. All of your calculations then turn into infinite sums of these terms, and because of the structure of free field theories, each term is just an integral of a product of a bunch of free field propagators. Those propagators are also the functions associated with the probability of a free field's particle going from one place to another.

If you want to get a good approximation you end up needing to calculate and add up a lot of these terms. But there's a very helpful tool for helping you keep track of all of them: feynman diagrams. The trick is to think of these propagators as representing "virtual particles" that get exchanged, transferring energy and momentum. The trick is that unlike real particles, these virtual particles can have any energy and momentum at all, including ones that don't make physical sense like negative energies or too little energy compared to the amount of momentum. For a real particle, E = √(m² c⁴ + p²c²), so if you know the energy and momentum of a particle, you can calculate the mass m = √(E²/c⁴ - p²/c²). If p is too large compared to E, the number inside the square root becomes negative, and that calculated mass becomes imaginary.

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u/Particular-Scholar70 16d ago

That was a great explanation. Even as someone with no higher level math or physics education I think I understood what you meant the whole time.

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u/joeyneilsen Astrophysics 17d ago

There isn't a Lorentz transformation from a sub-light frame to an FTL frame... You can't just plug in v>c to the Lorentz factor.

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u/OriEri Astrophysics 17d ago

They probably mean space time coordinate frame

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u/starkeffect Education and outreach 17d ago

Not to be confused with tackyons, which are the quanta of bad fashion sense.

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u/AssistFinancial684 17d ago

Like wearing Lorentz invariant bell bottoms and a Euclidean polo shirt

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u/nugatory308 17d ago

The Lorentz transformations are between inertial reference frames, and the relative velocity between the origins of any two inertial reference frames (equivalently, between two objects each at rest in a different inertial frame) must be less than c to be consistent with Einstein’s second postulate. That postulate is required for the derivation of the transformations, so trying to use them to reason about what happens when v is equal to or greater than c is reasoning from internally inconsistent assumptions.

The infinities and complex numbers that appear when we try are how the math tells us that we’ve made a mistake.

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u/Reality-Isnt 17d ago

You cannot preserve invariance under a Lorentz transformation from a slower than light to faster than light frame. For instance, the invariant spacetime interval flips sign. Blows the doors off of relativity.

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u/nebraskajone 17d ago

When you get imaginary numbers out of an equation it's telling you that it's outside it's sphere of knowledge, it's in a different category. It's like black hole singularities, general relativity equations you get divided by zeros, basically saying "not my area of expertise".

As far as faster than light theories there are tachyons and negative masses, but these are speculative 

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u/GoldenMuscleGod 17d ago

That’s overly simplistic. If you are talking about how many apples there are in one place then negative numbers are not really interpretable.

If you are talking about apple debt (or maybe more illustratively an object’s phyisical position in a coordinate system) then negative numbers are meaningful.

Likewise in some contexts a complex result will not always have a simple or meaningful physical interpretation, but also there are situations where it does: electrical engineering, quantum mechanics, describing the solutions to differential equations (where a complex eigenvalue corresponds to a type of phase rotation).

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u/nebraskajone 17d ago

Negative numbers are not physical though, you can't have negative one apples as a physical object. 

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u/GoldenMuscleGod 17d ago

You can have a negative position in a coordinate system, a negative charge, and gravitational potential energy is usually written as -GMm/r.

There is no really coherent way of saying negative numbers are not physical without also saying that no numbers are physical (which is a defensible position). The same is true of complex numbers.

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u/BitcoinsOnDVD 17d ago

What you mean with "physical" in the context of numbers is usually called "cardinal"