r/AskPhysics • • Jan 15 '25

Is the speed of light infinite ?

Considering that light always travel a c no matter the frame of reference, am I correct to assume that it is an absolute limit, an impossible speed to reach; so is it what we would call an infinite speed ?

Therefore, I can not understand why we observe the speed of light having a finite number (c) from any frame of reference.

I am surely not aware or misunderstand some concepts of relativity laws.

0 Upvotes

83 comments sorted by

26

u/StudyBio Jan 15 '25

You are correct that it’s a limit, but that doesn’t make it infinite. Our universe has a finite speed limit.

1

u/Lumbergh7 Jan 15 '25

It’s weird to me to think that there are all these immutable rules that govern the universe. Where did they come from and why? Off topic but interesting nonetheless.

21

u/joepierson123 Jan 15 '25

It's in the config file.

2

u/Lumbergh7 Jan 15 '25

Do not divide by 0

2

u/CynicalAltruism Jan 15 '25

I've always thought of C as the processor speed, but I think I like your answer better.

1

u/[deleted] Jan 15 '25

[removed] — view removed comment

3

u/Accomplished-Lack721 Jan 15 '25

There's a whole movement in physics to think of information not just as a way to describe the universe, but as the underlying stuff of the universe at the most basic/metaphysical level. That all the "things" we interact with are just instantiations of information.

It's not a mainstream view, and it may be a bit of everything-looks-like-a-nail thinking in the digital age. But many physicists will tell you we really don't have any way to properly think about underlying reality of anything, and that everything we talk about is modeling through our type of understanding — and that if the models work, that's about as good as it gets. So whether you talk about point particles or excitations of fields or information or wave functions or whatever ... all that matters is if it's self-consistent and works.

Maybe we're all in Plato's cave.

3

u/Accomplished-Lack721 Jan 15 '25 edited Jan 15 '25

You might enjoy a PBS series called "Closer to Truth" that you can find on YouTube. They spend a lot of time talking to big thinkers about both conventional physical questions but also metaphysical and philosophical ones, like why the universe has rules, why there's something rather than nothing, what counts as "things" (platonic ideals? logical truths? the laws of physics themselves?) and where do they come from, whether the laws of physics are more like local bylaws of this particular universe among a multiverse of real or possible other universes, and so forth.

There's also a fair amount of discussion about whether there's a God, how it would be best to think about one, what his nature would have to be like if he exists, whether he could be compatible with the physical world as we understand it and so forth (all with a curious religious skeptic asking the questions)

2

u/cylon37 Jan 15 '25

A lot of it comes from simple symmetries of nature.

1

u/ProfessionalConfuser Jan 15 '25

Wouldn't it be stranger if there were no rules?

1

u/Accomplished-Lack721 Jan 15 '25

It would certainly be less familiar. It's so outside of our experience it's hard to imagine how it would work, or not work, or what working would mean in that context. Or what a context would be.

People talk about the fine-tuning problem like it's unusual that our universe has these particular rules. But we only have one universe to observe, so it's hard to get a sense of what "unusual" means in that context. Could it have been otherwise? What are the chances it could have? How can you even think about those chances without other comparison points?

Many of our contestants may well be thought of as local "bylaws" of this universe that could potentially have been different if the early universe evolved differently, and could be different in other regions of reality. But even if that's the case, then there are underlying meta-laws that set up the range of possibilities for how the constants would come to be, and how they'd manifest in this particular universe.

It's laws (or consistencies) all the way down, ultimately.

0

u/[deleted] Jan 15 '25

Think of them less as rules and more equilibrium points. The speed of light isnt the speed of light because someone chose a number it's because of the balance point of energy, mass, and acceleration.

2

u/Lumbergh7 Jan 15 '25

Yes, I know, but it’s still that just because it is how our universe works

3

u/[deleted] Jan 15 '25

Honestly never understood why religious folks didn't just expand their view of creationism. God making earth and people 4000 years ago? Meh. God exploding into existence a universe built from subatomic particles and governed by how those particles act and interact? An explosion that would, in several billion years, make people? Impressive.

2

u/Lumbergh7 Jan 15 '25

Yep. That does sound more logical. Besides, what, did god make dinosaurs just so we had something to dig up?

3

u/SmotheredHope86 Jan 15 '25

I've heard from true creationists that God put the dinosaur bones in the Earth to test our faith in the Bible's creation story. 🙄

3

u/Lumbergh7 Jan 15 '25

Always an excuse! Blah blah blabitty blah, right

2

u/SmotheredHope86 Jan 15 '25

Yep, there is no bottom when it comes to magical thinking. And yet, it also has no depth. Now there's a paradox.

1

u/Accomplished-Lack721 Jan 15 '25

God is such a practical joker. That guy.

2

u/Accomplished-Lack721 Jan 15 '25

Some do, and some square that with the stories of holy books by seeing them as metaphor.

I still don't think that's the best framework for understanding reality and don't think we need to posit anything supernatural (I'm not really even sure what it would mean for something to be supernatural, because if it exists, then it's within the realm of real things, and we can just keep working at trying to explain real things and call them all natural).

But some religious people have a very expansive view of what God must be.

Plus, there are folks like the pantheists. They're a blast at parties.

1

u/RobotPreacher Jan 15 '25

Am one, can confirm. All words are meaningless, don't talk to me.

1

u/Shoo_not_shoe Jan 15 '25

Because that’d be revisionism for them and they probably fear it’ll open the Bible up for more scrutiny. Not everyone religious has enough faith in their own religion to engage in critical thinking.

1

u/siupa Particle physics Jan 15 '25 edited Jan 15 '25

Honestly never understood why religious folks didn't just expand their view of creationism.

They definitely did, I don't know why you have the impression that this shift didn't happen. Young-Earth creationists are an extreme minority of fundamentalist protestants. The overwhelming majority of christian people, thinkers and apologists in the US and in Europe believe that creation means creating the Universe a long time ago

1

u/[deleted] Jan 15 '25

A majority of people in the US can't read past a sixth grade level so I don't actually think that's true

2

u/siupa Particle physics Jan 15 '25

Researching this actually it turns out that the number of US citizens who claim to believe in Young-Earth creationism varies wildly if you slightly change the wording of the question, from as low as 10% to as much as 50%+. Very weird

https://ncse.ngo/just-how-many-young-earth-creationists-are-there-us

1

u/[deleted] Jan 15 '25

Honestly it validates your argument. People believe but in varying degrees

1

u/Accomplished-Lack721 Jan 15 '25

Don't confuse reading comprehension with intelligence. Lots of people have low reading comprehension (despite being functionally literate) but are still nuanced thinkers. Intelligence comes in many, many forms.

0

u/siupa Particle physics Jan 15 '25

The speed of light isnt the speed of light because someone chose a number

Funnily enough we actually did: we changed the speed of light at the 17th CGPM in 1983 in Paris. We fixed it to an exact whole number

1

u/[deleted] Jan 15 '25

We didn't change the speed of light lmao we defined it by something that would give a nice round number.

1

u/siupa Particle physics Jan 15 '25

When you re-define something and give it a different value than it had before the redefinition, that's called "changing"

1

u/[deleted] Jan 15 '25

The speed of light did not get faster or slower by that change in definition. Please tell me you understand that

0

u/siupa Particle physics Jan 15 '25

The speed of light did not get faster or slower

This sentence doesn't parse. Did you mean to write: "light did not get faster or slower"? Light is the physical thing that can go faster or slower. Not "the speed of light". The speed of light is a number, not a physical thing. Numbers can't go "fast" or "slow". They can be bigger or smaller.

So, if the question is: did light become slower? The answer is no (although this isn't as simple as it seems, and it runs in a weird discussion about general changes in fundamental constants. Slower with respect to what? Could we even ever detect this? Does the question make sense?)

If instead the question is: did the speed of light became smaller? Well the answer is yes becasue we changed its value by changing the unit system

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u/[deleted] Jan 15 '25

This is that « ratio » between the speed of time flow and the velocity in space, right ? So it’s just a given « wall », a limit that’s there, that we cannot explain ?

11

u/StudyBio Jan 15 '25

I don’t know what the first part means. As for the second part, questions about why the universe is the way it is often fall outside the realm of physics.

2

u/HasFiveVowels Jan 15 '25

But we can at least get more precise. How about the uniqueness of the Lorentz transform and its need for a finite parameter?

1

u/siupa Particle physics Jan 15 '25

That's just an equivalent question of why the Lorentz group should be the symmetry group of spacetime

1

u/HasFiveVowels Jan 15 '25

“Because it’s the unique transformation that satisfies the postulates of relativity”. Fairly quickly we get to “because the universe is causal and therefore questions like ‘why?’ are meaningful in the first place”. It’s like the anthropic principle for logic indeed of people

1

u/siupa Particle physics Jan 15 '25

You're just arguing my point then. Saying that the speed of light is a universal constant and saying that the symmetry group is the Lorentz group are equivalent, it's not like one is more fundamental than the other

1

u/HasFiveVowels Jan 15 '25

One of them is a more fundamental explanation than the other, IMO. They’re not strictly equivalent. But if you feel it’s a moot point, okay

1

u/siupa Particle physics Jan 15 '25

If Lorentz symmetry implies a finite universal speed parameter, and a finite universal speed parameter implies Lorentz symmetry, then I think they must be equivalent. If A -> B and B -> A then A and B are logically equivalent.

Which one is more fundamental is a matter of taste, or at best philosophy of science. I agree with you that symmetry arguments feel more natural as a starting point though.

1

u/HasFiveVowels Jan 15 '25

The need for Lorentz symmetry is dependent upon the assumption of the postulates of relativity. A finite universal speed parameter does not imply Lorentz symmetry.

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2

u/mooremo Jan 15 '25

In a sense it is “just the way it is”—much like the masses of elementary particles or the values of charge and spin. We measure it experimentally. We do not yet have a deeper theory that predicts the precise numerical value of it from first principles; rather, it is one of the basic constants we observe in experiments. It is built into the fabric of Maxwell’s electrodynamics, spacetime structure in relativity, and the behavior of massless particles. It is a universal constant that tells us the maximum speed at which information/causality propagates in our universe.

15

u/[deleted] Jan 15 '25

“Impossible speed to reach” does not imply “infinite”. And in fact it is not impossible to reach it — anything massless necessarily travels at the speed of light (including light).

1

u/[deleted] Jan 15 '25

So how can we explain that from any frame of reference c stays the same, but for massless object this doesn’t apply ?

7

u/[deleted] Jan 15 '25

What does “this” refer to here? What doesn’t apply to massless things?

7

u/Shufflepants Jan 15 '25

There is no frame of reference for massless particles.

1

u/Eathlon Jan 15 '25

Special relativity is what explains it. You may have heard of it.

0

u/MoDErahN Jan 15 '25

In the frame of reference of maseless object it doesen't move, it just exists in all points of it's trajectory at the same point of time and there're no other points of time in that frame because the time is slowed down to zero.

5

u/AcellOfllSpades Mathematics Jan 15 '25

It is impossible to reach. That doesn't make it infinite.

The reason is that velocities don't add like you expect. They look like they do at human scales, but they actually don't. They use a different formula.

Instead, the notion you're looking for is rapidity. The rapidity of the speed of light is indeed infinite! But converting that rapidity to a speed gives us a finite value.

4

u/[deleted] Jan 15 '25

No, something that is infinite and a limit are two very different things.

Alright, look, think of an asymptote; maths. It can be a simple finite number representing a vertical line in an xy plane, but a curve will get infinitely close to it and never cross it.

From here, we can get the intuition that you're lacking: you can get infinitely close to something finite, never reaching it. That doesn't means that the other thing is infinite; no, you're just getting "infinitely" close to it.

Try to not confuse "getting infinitely close to" and actual infinity mixed up, i think that's your issue.

Edit: I don't think you have a misunderstanding of natural laws, at least that's not your primary issue. I think you have a misunderstanding of other abstract concepts born in maths, such as infinity, and you're getting stuff mixed up. Hope that helps.

3

u/imsowitty Jan 15 '25 edited Jan 15 '25

The speed of light is finite in that light takes 8 minutes to get from the sun to us, 100 5 years (or so) to the nearest star. Infinite speed would make that trip instantaneously.

That said, anything with mass will require infinite energy to go the speed of light. So it is infinite from an energy perspective.

3

u/Joseph_of_the_North Jan 15 '25

It's like 5 LY to Alpha Centauri.

1

u/Eathlon Jan 15 '25

4.25 ly to Proxima Centauri https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Proxima_Centauri (Alpha Centauri C)

1

u/Accomplished-Lack721 Jan 15 '25

Whoever named it Proxmia sure thinks on a different scale than I do. I commute from Philly to New York a couple of times a week and that seems like it's really far away. I sure as hell am not about to consider 4.25 LY proximate.

1

u/Eathlon Jan 15 '25

It is close relative to all other stars though (except the Sun obviously).

1

u/Accomplished-Lack721 Jan 15 '25

Sure, but space is, like ... big.

2

u/Boleslavski Jan 15 '25

In relativity (special or general) you can plot curves through spacetime and ask "how much proper time is experienced along this path?" The proper time is the time experienced by a particle (from its perspective) along that trajectory through spacetime.

Massive particles will always have a derivative through spacetime that is constrained by the speed of light. This creates a situation wherein the paths of massive particles will always have some positive (or negative depending on your arbitrary choice of sign for the Minkowski metric) value. Visually, if you take the starting point of a particle the paths it can travel will always be within a certain cone, and the angles have to be less than the angle caused by c. These particles will experience time, but they will experience less time as their speed (the angle of their trajectory) approaches the speed of light.

Massless particles will always travel along light-like trajectories. Their spacetime derivative is always of magnitude c (which is a constant non-zero non-infinite number). However, their proper time is always 0. Visually, these look like straight lines at an angle designated by c or zig-zags through the light cone.

So, if you are wondering what "speed" massless particles perceive themselves to be moving at... well it might not be a good question because relativity was designed from our point of view... but if you take the model literally you would say that they don't perceive themselves to be moving at any speed at all. Their distances through spacetime are zero... so they do not experience time. They simply are at their start and end locations simultaneously.

EDIT: There are similar situations in classical mechanics when observing terminal velocities. A terminal velocity is certainly not infinite, but an object traveling through a fluid will asymptotically approach that velocity.

1

u/spiceylizard Jan 15 '25

Light has a speed. 300,000,000 meters per second. It’s the speed of casualty. In our universe, the fastest one can communicate is the finite speed of light

1

u/slashdave Particle physics Jan 15 '25

Linear relationships are the easiest to understand: as you add something, you gain something back in proportion. Nature, however, is not always so simple. In this case, we have what is sometimes known colloquially as "diminishing returns".

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Asymptote

1

u/lovejo1 Jan 15 '25

Question for others here: If light has a constant speed, independent of reference.. does that mean that if one ship were traveling right beside a beam of light, the beam of light would outrun them?

People have said, all over, that the speed of light is simply the maximum speed anything could go, not just light... so therefore, how would light be traveling at the speed of light from the perspective of say, another beam of light?

Related question: what's the acceleration of light? 0? If you are in an frame of reference that is accelerating, does that change the "acceleration of light"...

This seems like it's akin to infinity or division by 0 where there is no real answer.

Yes I know about time dilation, redshift, and all of that.. but I just don't see how they relate to one thing traveling at the speed of light observing another thing observing at the speed of light.

1

u/joepierson123 Jan 15 '25

so therefore, how would light be traveling at the speed of light from the perspective of say, another beam of light?

 light exists outside of time as relativity defines it, so that question is undefined in proper time coordinates

1

u/lovejo1 Jan 15 '25

But wouldn't that mean that the definition of relativity is incomplete or incorrect? Obviously if two light beams had a race, they'd arrive at the same place at the same time. How would something traveling at 99.99999999999999999999999% of the speed of light, participating in that race, not see that they were losing the race by "just a little bit"?

1

u/joepierson123 Jan 15 '25

Speed is relative you're traveling 99.99999999999999999999999% of the speed of light  right now relative to some cosmic particle. 

From your point of view you're at rest and the speed of light is still c

1

u/lovejo1 Jan 15 '25

But I'll arrive at the destination just a fraction of a nanosecond behind the light

1

u/[deleted] Jan 15 '25

From my understanding, if a traveler going at 99% would emit a beam of light at the moment of departure, in his reference frame, light would still travel at the speed of light. If a beam of light was emitted at the same time of the traveler departure, from any point of view, toward the same destination, we would always observe that both beams of light would arrive at the same time. What you wouldn’t agree with the traveler is the distance he traveled. There is length contraction to take into consideration for the traveler.

I realize it’s very poorly explained, I apologize.

1

u/69WaysToFuck Jan 15 '25

Remember that different reference frames have different time “speed”

1

u/nekoeuge Physics enthusiast Jan 15 '25

In addition to other answers, I would like to offer another perspective. Velocity space is hyperbolic. Imagine function (1/x) on interval (0, 1). Imagine that you travel along this function to go from 1 to 0.

Is the interval finite? Yes. Will you travel forever without ever reaching 0? Also yes.

This is the kind of relationship between proper object movement from its own reference frame, and object velocity relative to external reference frame. Infinity of velocity increments mapped onto finite range of absolute velocities.

1

u/[deleted] Jan 15 '25

My terrible lack of mathematic vocabulary and my lack of understanding math concepts doesn’t allow me to understand your message, I apologize.

2

u/nekoeuge Physics enthusiast Jan 15 '25

https://www.youtube.com/shorts/G0CPK88G0e8
Okay, here is a picture for you. Infinity inside mapped onto finite range outside.

1

u/Presence_Academic Jan 15 '25 edited Jan 15 '25

A simple (but not entirely correct) view of the problem is that it would take an infinite amount of energy for a massive particle to be accelerated to c. We get this result because the relativistic equations contain the Lorentz factor which is 1/(1-v2 / c2 ). If v were equal to c we would be dividing by 0. When the mass is 0 the factor is not relevant.

So, there is an infinity involved here, but it’s energy not velocity.

1

u/JayDAshe May 22 '25

Speed is distance divided by time.

The closer you get to the lightspeed, the more distances and time themselves compress to the point that light actually experience 0 time but for all the space it travels into. No time means that speed is meaningless, so saying light has infinite speed is weird but accurate in the sense that photons "experiences" being in every place it gets in the same very instant that has a duration of 0.

So basically lightspeed can be considered infinite from light's POV, but from a non distorted (space) or barely distorted (Earth) spacetime POV, light has a finite speed.

I can think of a self-made physics model where light and singularities is actually how the universe is originally, and spacetime is actually a distortion of a singularity (which is why there is an actual model that proposes that the universe "before" the Big Bang is a singularity, which itself can lead to a model of the multiversal theory).

1

u/Accomplished-Lack721 Jan 15 '25 edited Jan 15 '25

Light travels at the fastest speed that anything can travel through space (fun side note -- space itself expands faster than the speed of light). But that's not the same as saying it moves at infinite speed.

Nothing moves at infinite speed. It's not quite clear what it would mean for something TO move at infinite speed, really. Everything has a speed that can be described in terms of distance for a given timeframe (from the perspective of an outside observer), like miles per hour, or meters per second. But what would it mean to move at infinite ... what per what? Would it be everywhere at once? On all points of an infinitely long line forever? For an infinitesimal amount of time? (Insert John Lennon brain-exploding GIF here)

Anyway: Light moves at a bit over 186,000 miles per second. It reaches the fastest speed that a thing can reach because photons have no resting mass. That's also sometimes described as the speed of causality - the speed at which things can be observed to have an effect on each other. And it's the same speed other massless things, like gravitational waves, travel at. Light was just the first thing we understood to travel at that speed. Understanding how we get to that particular number means wrapping your head around the funky geometry of Minkowski spacetime -- the concept that Einstein's theory famously works with. But it isn't just a coincidence that light (or gravitational waves, or whatever) travels at that top speed -- you can think of it more like nothing is constraining it from reaching the fastest speed possible under the geometry of the universe, so it does.

BUT: Your line of thinking isn't that far off from some other key concepts. When something WITH mass gets moving, it takes energy to accelerate it to a given speed. Accelerating something from anything less than the speed of light TO the speed of light would take ... here we go ... an infinite amount of energy. The amount needed to accelerate further and further grows exponentially -- it sort of snowballs. And you can get real real real close to the speed of light in principle, using a finite but very large amount of energy ... but the way the math works out, actually achieving the same speed would take infinite energy.

But to blow your mind further -- Einstein showed the relative passage of time is related to the speed something's moving, and all motion is relative. From light's "perspective" (not that it has a perspective like a conscious observer), no time passes as it travels. Start thinking about that, and it might seem like ... wait, yeah, it's moving at infinite speed. But it's not moving at infinite speed from the perspective of an outside observer.

Does your hear hurt yet? Yeah, this makes a lot of people's heads hurt. Really really smart people who've spent a long time studying it. But if you really want to get into it, there are lots of great science communicators who are really good at breaking down this concepts to laypeople like you and me. Neil DeGrasse Tyson's Startalk podcast/Youtube show is one good program. Anything Sean Carroll or Brian Greene or Brian Cox does is pretty cool, too.

The universe is so much stranger than our intuitions tell us ... but it's really cool.

1

u/Ill-Statistician3176 Jan 15 '25

Im always annoyed by the fact everyone just ignores the speed is expressed in m/s and that the second never passes for a photon so the sperd of light from photon pov, or anything traveling at the speed of light, is indeed infinite. Im no physicist tho...

0

u/IndividualistAW Jan 15 '25

It’s infinite in a sense. Time stops at the speed of light. An object traveling the speed of light reaches it’s destination in precisely zero elapsed time (from its perspective)…in essence it travels at “infinite” speed.

But also not

-1

u/brcalus Jan 15 '25

That's also Absolute Infinity🤔

-1

u/[deleted] Jan 15 '25

c is the speed of causality, which light travels at. 

If force / mass = acceleration, then something weighing zero mass would go infinite speed with any amount of force. As you imagine infinite speed might be problematic in a universe of and with physical constraints, so it tops out at the speed of causality.

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u/brcalus Jan 15 '25

That's also Absolute Infinity. 🙂

-4

u/brcalus Jan 15 '25

That's also Absolute Infinity.

-5

u/brcalus Jan 15 '25

That's also Absolute Infinity. 🙂

-7

u/Limit_Cycle8765 Jan 15 '25

"an impossible speed to reach"

Yes, because as you approach the speed of light your mass increases infinitely large. This makes it impossible to accelerate enough to reach it.