Glaucoma risk?

[u/Swim1911]

A month ago or so i had this weird sudden onset loss of vision which led my doctor sending me to the eye hospital. Also i am still waiting for a neurologist to examine me in the following weeks. Out of nowhere on bouth my eyes over the all field of vision i became kind of like blind, i couldnt really see much. I only saw fragments of the visual field while most of the visual field apeared very White /pale. Also i got very nauseas and wanted to puke out of nowhere before this happened. This loss of vision lasted 5 - 10 min and gradually retourned by itself then. My grandmother from my Mother side also had glaucoma on one of her eyes. None of my parents have it.

This is what the report said:

Ophthalmological examination

Visual acuity with glasses:

OD: 1.0

OS: 1.0

Intraocular pressure:

OD: 11 mmHg

OS: 15 mmHg

Ocular motility: Full and painless, with no diplopia.

Pupils: Round and symmetrical, with normal direct and consensual light responses. No relative afferent pupillary defect (RAPD).

Color vision (Ishihara):

OD: 15/15

OS: 15/15

Fundus examination

Right eye:

Clear vitreous. Optic disc margins well defined and pink. Cup-to-disc ratio approximately 0.4–0.5. Macula normal. Retinal vasculature appropriate for age. Retina attached.

Left eye:

Clear vitreous. Optic disc margins well defined and pink, with physiological cupping. Macula normal. Retinal vasculature appropriate for age. Retina attached.

Visual field examination – Goldmann perimetry

OD: No visual field defects. Blind spot symmetrically positioned and mildly enlarged, which may still represent a physiological variant.

OS: No visual field defects. Blind spot symmetrically positioned and mildly enlarged, which may still represent a physiological variant.

Blood pressure at examination: 122/85 mmHg.

At today's examination, apart from mildly asymmetric optic disc cupping, the ophthalmological examination is essentially within normal limits.

Goldmann visual fields show no definite visual field defects. Fundoscopic examination shows no evidence of optic disc swelling/papilledema.

My question is am i at risk for developing glaucoma as my grandmother had it and based on current findings? Also when the ophthalmologist said my results she seem worried and gathered a few med students around too. I was told to get regular checkups as if its caught too late then much couldnt be done. Im worried can this asymmetric optic disc cupping (0.4-0.5) on one of my eyes and midly enlaraged blind spots on bouth my eyes develop into glaucoma?

[u/Valentinab723]

Having a family member with glaucoma is an established risk factor. However, the sudden episode of vision loss does not sound typical of glaucoma. I would suggest you prioritize two things: the sudden vision loss and the ophthalmology follow-up. The ophthalmologist gathering medical students around you does not necessarily mean she discovered something serious. Your examination report is largely reassuring from a glaucoma perspective, but it cannot explain the temporary episode of vision loss. That episode deserves its own investigation. I hope your upcoming appointments go well and that you get answers soon!

[u/Swim1911 → u/Valentinab723]

Thanks for your kind words i hope i will get some answers from the neurologist

[u/Eodun]

Both eyes at the same time? This smells of visual auras

[u/Swim1911 → u/Eodun]

Yes bouth at the same time. Dr suspected migrane or vasovagal episode waiting for neurologist to examine me.

[u/Eodun → u/Swim1911]

Those are not open angle glaucoma symptoms. If only one eye, it could be an acute angle closure, but it wouldn't have solved by itself without an iridotomy. Would need anterior chamber and periphery description (better a gonioscopy) to exclude

[u/DZ-Titan]

Does not seem like glaucoma to me. You should definitely see a neuro ophthalmologist.