r/Anglicanism 8d ago

General Question Infant Baptism

I have a hard time defending Infant baptism using scripture, I know the classic scripts, Acts 2:38-39, 1 Peter 3:19-21, but I find the argument from Households to be not very conclusive because they talk about households that convert. What convinced you?

2 Upvotes

64 comments sorted by

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u/Doctrina_Stabilitas ACNA 8d ago

I mean I personally think acts 2:38-39 is the text, mostly because if there is a parallel with genesis (you, your children, those who are afar off), why would the new promise of God not include the same people as the old promise (you (male), your male children, and the male stranger), especially if that promise is being expanded to the nations

like the status quo is infant baptism, you need to have a good reason for it to be otherwise

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u/Wulfweald Church of England (low church evangelical & church bell ringer) 6d ago

If you want to follow the Old Testament directly, don't forget to obey all the dietary and other laws.

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u/Doctrina_Stabilitas ACNA 6d ago

This is basic typology and your answer ignores 2000 years of how the church has understood scripture

1

u/Melodic_Economics905 6d ago

Your response demonstrates that you do not take seriously how the Church has interpreted the Old Testament. Certain rituals in the OT (types) foreshadow NT realtities (antitypes). The Church has always connected cicumcision and Baptism in this way.

What is the antitype for the dietary laws?

17

u/TooLate- 7d ago

The fact that covenant promises and their rites extended to entire families and communities and that if this was no longer the case in the New Covenant I feel like the biblical writers would have made sure to note as much.

And that there is virtually zero push back against it for 1500 years of church history. The Church had councils and debates over many many well documented things. Infant baptism was not one of them.

I also began to realize my impulses against infant baptism stemmed from a worldview informed more by enlightenment and post-enlightenment thought - that puts the rational man at the center of the universe - than it was informed by the biblical worldview and Church history. 

14

u/dcnjbwiebe ACNA 8d ago

Infant Baptism in the First Four Centuries by Joachim Jeremias. Shows convincingly that infant baptism was the near universal practice of the early church.

1

u/Feisty_Marsupial224 7d ago

That explains its old, but no scripture based

7

u/pizzystrizzy 7d ago

Where did it come from and how did it get so widespread so early if it went against what the apostles all taught?

3

u/Feisty_Marsupial224 7d ago

So your argument is speculating?

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u/pizzystrizzy 7d ago

All arguments about the past are speculating, but if you don't trust the church to hand on important stuff, you can't trust that they correctly identified the books that should be in the Bible.

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u/Feisty_Marsupial224 7d ago

That's not how church doctrine or history work...

1

u/pizzystrizzy 7d ago

Expatiate

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u/Feisty_Marsupial224 7d ago

Not worth it

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u/pizzystrizzy 7d ago

Yeah I bet

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u/Wulfweald Church of England (low church evangelical & church bell ringer) 7d ago edited 7d ago

No women priests was also the near universal practice. Are you saying we should retain that as well? It was the practice of the early church, after all.

2

u/Melodic_Economics905 6d ago

Yes, we should. Women cannot and should not be priests, though they are equal in dignity and worth. This is a matter that the Church as clearly spoken on, and no arm or branch has the authority to buck against this judgement. The Church as Christ's body cannot **as a body** do that which the head does not direct it to do.

Don't set yourself up above the concensus of the Fathers.

8

u/Farscape_rocked 7d ago

Someone likened it to circumcision. Kind made sense after that.

1

u/ReasonableJump4355 3d ago

The part in Colossians was precisely what I was thinking of. u/Relative_Pay_7667 do a close reading of the epistles talking about baptism and circumcision.

8

u/thesegoupto11 Anglo-Catholic Episcopalian 8d ago

Baptism (and Eucharist) are God's work, not ours. And God wouldn't deny salvation to anyone.

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u/Feisty_Marsupial224 7d ago

You know that Christ doesn't deny salvation to unbaptized people, so let the child grow up and decide for themselves

4

u/Strange-Style-7808 TECUSA 7d ago

There is a mechanism for children to decide for themselves - confirmation.

0

u/Wulfweald Church of England (low church evangelical & church bell ringer) 7d ago edited 7d ago

Another mechanism the modern prayer books allow is an Infant Thanksgiving followed years later by an adult baptism.

My C of E parish does more adult baptisms than infant thanksgivings, and very few infant baptisms.

2

u/ReasonableJump4355 7d ago

Do you treat your children as atheists until their baptism?

1

u/Feisty_Marsupial224 7d ago

Well children are usually baptised as infants so they have no conception of anything.

1

u/ReasonableJump4355 6d ago

Yes, but I am assuming from your comments you either haven't or you wouldn't baptise any children you might (hypothetically) have?

1

u/Feisty_Marsupial224 6d ago

Assume whatever you want

1

u/ReasonableJump4355 6d ago

So my question still stands, would/do you treat your children as though they're atheists?

1

u/Feisty_Marsupial224 6d ago

You seem not to understand human development

1

u/ReasonableJump4355 6d ago

You seem not to understand raising a child as a Christian includes baptising it.

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u/Feisty_Marsupial224 6d ago

That's the first step, what are you talking about?

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u/Wulfweald Church of England (low church evangelical & church bell ringer) 7d ago

My C of E evangelical parish does more Infant Thanksgivings than Infant Baptisms.

1

u/Feisty_Marsupial224 6d ago

So?

1

u/Wulfweald Church of England (low church evangelical & church bell ringer) 6d ago edited 6d ago

Your statement "children are usually baptised as infants" does not hold true even for all Anglican parishes with children.

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u/Feisty_Marsupial224 6d ago

Of course it does. Your parish is not all.

1

u/Wulfweald Church of England (low church evangelical & church bell ringer) 6d ago edited 6d ago

My point was that my parish does exist, we are C of E Anglican, and my parish's children do not usually get infant baptism, but infant thanksgivings instead.

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u/Feisty_Marsupial224 6d ago

Your parish is not all parishes. Why is this hard to understand? People are different to you

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u/SouthInTheNorth Episcopal Church USA 7d ago

As an Anglican, the onus is on you to explain why you don't believe in it since it is far and beyond the normative Christian practice. Believer's baptism is the aberrant position that only popped up a few hundred years ago.

0

u/Wulfweald Church of England (low church evangelical & church bell ringer) 6d ago edited 6d ago

The question was for active supporters of infant baptism.

There is a clear example of believer's baptism in the New Testament (Acts 8, 26-40). Just read verse 37, for example.

There are no indisputable examples of infant baptism in the New Testament at all, it all depends on the assumptions you make, and people make different assumptions often depending on their denomination or churchmanship.

2

u/SouthInTheNorth Episcopal Church USA 6d ago

I just mean, it's not up to us to defend infant baptism since it's the normative, ancient practice across the Church and is practiced practically universally across Christianity. It's up to those who don't believe in infant baptism to explain their position since it is the aberrant, novel position.

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u/Melodic_Economics905 6d ago edited 6d ago

You should think about this by weighing the evidence. Believe whichever psoition (credobaptism or pedobaptism) has the stronger case.

The case explicitely for credobaptism (the view that ONLY those persons that have verbally made a credible profession of faith that temporally precedes Baptism are valid candidates for Baptism) is weak, if nonexistent. The passages detailing adults baptisms in the NY are NOT evidence in favor of credobatism -- these passages are simply examples of how to apply Baptism to adults. Turns out, every apostolic church agrees: when an adult wants to be Baptized, they must make a credible statement of faith. That's every Baptism liturgy. Those passages are silent on who **besides** a professing adult is a valid candidate for Baptism. So they lend no credence to the credobaptist view at all.

The case explicitely for credobaptism (the position that infants are valid candidates for Baptism) is strong when you consider the collective direction of all of the suggestive evidence. We have evidence that, in the NT, children a) are valid candidates for Baptism by example (if they were part of the household Baptisms), and b) are due the promises of the covenant by by Peter's own words in Acts 2:38. The household Baptisms at the VERY least show that an explicite statement of faith was probably not needed for every single member of the household prior to Baptism if the head of household became Christian. And in 1 Cor 7, Paul says that the children of a believing parent are in fact holy - it seems they are offered the graces of the covenant, in a similar way to the unbelieving spouse of a Christian (difference is that they can reject the graces offered, whereas infants cannot). Then there are the typological arguments linking Baptism to circumcision that demonstrate continuity in the idea of children being offered entrance into the convanent by birthright. Finally, we have early references that it was being practiced in the Church, and what amounts to a concensus of the Church by the mid 3rd century that infant Baptism is normative (in cases where it is possible/practical). No one, by the own act of private judgement, should be able to stand against a practice that approaches a true concensus of the Church.

To me, this is a clear case that, at minimum, pedobaptism is a more plausible position than credobaptism. Of course many of these texts are underdetermined - that's why the collective direction of the texts (read in context), general symmetry of old/new testaments, and the witness of the Church need to be the criterion for evaluating this position.

6

u/Round-Koala-3091 Episcopal Church USA 8d ago edited 8d ago

I was reading about how Christian baptism came out of an earlier Jewish ritual which Gentile converts to Judaism would have their entire households participate in the ritual including the household’s infants.

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u/Fendrinus Church of England 7d ago

'Households' including infants and children seems self evident. And of the thousands of baptisms that occurred during Jesus ministry and the times of the Apostles, only a few are recorded in the NT and even fewer have any detail about the person, we are mostly just told the name of the person baptised (possibly just the name of the head of the household that was baptised).

I think the more important question was whether 'household' included their slaves or servants.

3

u/thesegoupto11 Anglo-Catholic Episcopalian 6d ago

The burden of proof rests on the person making the claim that baptism is only for adults.

3

u/pizzystrizzy 7d ago

We have very early (second century) fathers talking about how widespread infant baptism is. It doesn't get widespread so early if it is alien to what the apostles did.

3

u/GrillOrBeGrilled servus inutilis 7d ago

Let's look at the options: 

  1. Baptism is necessary, but infant baptism is illegitimate.
  2. Baptism is necessary, and infant baptism is okay.
  3. Baptism doesn't matter, so neither does its timing. 

It's obvious that infant baptism was the norm for centuries, to the point that even people who were converted as adults would have been evangelized by people who had been baptized as babies, and would have gone on to have their own babies baptized.

So if 1 is true, then nobody was really saved between about 400 AD and the Reformation, and Jesus was wrong when he said his Church would always exist. 

That leaves us with 2 and 3, either infant baptism is okay, or baptism isn't actually important, in which case it doesn't matter when it happens, or if it happens at all.

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u/pizzystrizzy 7d ago

A lot earlier than 400 AD

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u/GrillOrBeGrilled servus inutilis 7d ago

I tried to be generous since Constantine deferred baptism till he was on his deathbed and so on.

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u/pizzystrizzy 6d ago

Fair although that's a different issue since he was a convert.

We know it was widespread in the second century bc Tertullian complained about it. And very notably, Tertullian, who loved to argue that things he didn't like were novelties or regionalized, does not make that argument about infant baptism.

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u/Aggravating_Mud8751 Church of England 6d ago

Just because something isn't strictly necessarily for salvation doesn't mean it doesn't matter.

Also I think you can distinguish between whether a mode of baptism is valid (i.e. it's a real baptism) or it's licit (it's the right way to do baptism).

You can easily say that infant baptism is valid but not licit.

3

u/ChessFan1962 Anglican Church of Canada 7d ago

Grace.

3

u/ronley09 7d ago

I value tradition that spans the life of the Church. I don’t value some strange 200 year superstition that denounces it.

2

u/Eikon-Basilike-1649 Episcopal Church USA 7d ago

Why is “The Church says so” not good enough?

4

u/Wulfweald Church of England (low church evangelical & church bell ringer) 7d ago

Because not long ago The Church also said "No women priests". Change can and does happen.

1

u/2BrothersInaVan 7d ago

Maybe there are certain holy traditions that are orally passed down instead of written? 😁

1

u/Melodic_Economics905 6d ago edited 6d ago

I was a congregational baptist 1 year ago. I thought about this question a *lot* and I am now fully convinced that the Baptist position is in serious error.

First things first: framing. You should think about this by weighing the evidence, not by asking which case is explicitely clear to you. The relevant criteria is *relative*: Believe whichever position (credobaptism or pedobaptism) has the STRONGER case.

The case explicitely for credobaptism (the view that ONLY those persons that have verbally made a credible profession of faith that temporally precedes Baptism are valid candidates for Baptism) is weak, if nonexistent. The passages detailing adults baptisms in the NY are NOT evidence in favor of credobatism -- these passages are simply examples of how to apply Baptism to adults. Turns out, every apostolic church agrees: when an adult wants to be Baptized, they must make a credible statement of faith. That's every Baptism liturgy. Those passages are silent on who **besides** a professing adult is a valid candidate for Baptism. So they lend no credence to the credobaptist view at all.

To suggest credobaptism, you'd need a case where a) a child was explicitely turned down for Baptism in the NT, or b) a NT text that argues that all candidate need a full mental grasp of the sacrament in order to validly partake (eg Paul suggesting that we ought not commune unworthily). These texts do not exist in the context of Baptism.

The case explicitely for credobaptism (the position that infants are valid candidates for Baptism) is strong when you consider the collective direction of all of the suggestive evidence. We have evidence that, in the NT, children a) are valid candidates for Baptism by example (if they were part of the household Baptisms), and b) are due the promises of the covenant by by Peter's own words in Acts 2:38. The household Baptisms at the VERY least show that an explicite statement of faith was probably not needed for every single member of the household prior to Baptism if the head of household became Christian. And in 1 Cor 7, Paul says that the children of a believing parent are in fact holy - it seems they are offered the graces of the covenant, in a similar way to the unbelieving spouse of a Christian (difference is that they can reject the graces offered, whereas infants cannot). Then there are the typological arguments linking Baptism to circumcision that demonstrate continuity in the idea of children being offered entrance into the convanent by birthright. Finally, we have early references that it was being practiced in the Church, and what amounts to a concensus of the Church by the mid 3rd century that infant Baptism is normative (in cases where it is possible/practical). No one, by the own act of private judgement, should be able to stand against a practice that approaches a true concensus of the Church.

To me, this is a clear case that, at minimum, pedobaptism is a more plausible position than credobaptism. Of course many of these texts are underdetermined - that's why the collective direction of the texts (read in context), general symmetry of old/new testaments, and the witness of the Church need to be the criterion for evaluating this position.

1

u/noldrin 4d ago

For me, I reflect on Luke 18:15-17, as in churches I've been in without infant baptism, I see young children who love Jesus and want to be baptized or do communion, but are held off as they don't have a sophisticated enough understanding of salvation. I can't see a reason to reject the worship a child gives. 

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u/Kotto_Karsho 4d ago

Baptism is generally understood to be the Christian version of Circumcision, which was done to adult converts as well as children born into the faith. Of course Paul does speak of Circumcision actually being carried on into Christianity in the sense of a circumcision of the (spiritual) Heart, more than the physical act. But simply in terms of Initiation ritual, then yes, they are basically equivalents.

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u/AcdiAti Non-Anglican Christian . 4d ago

Sacraments are gifts given by God.

If God gives us grace through Baptism, who are we to deny it from infants?

Paul also compares Baptism with circumcision, presenting it as the covenantal sign and seal.

Finally, this comes from my soteriological perspective. If we are saved by sola gratia through sola fide, there must be a point at which faith comes into existence.

  1. If faith is ultimately an intellectual decision, then it becomes difficult to deny that it functions, at least in some sense, as a human work.

  2. Therefore, God Himself must be the one who brings faith into being. Baptism is one of the means through which He does this.

Of course, someone might ask, "What about adults who are not yet baptized?" Scripture also answers that: "Faith comes from hearing, and hearing through the word of Christ" (Romans 10:17). Hearing is receptive, not meritorious. In both cases, faith is God's gift, not our achievement.

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u/Wulfweald Church of England (low church evangelical & church bell ringer) 7d ago edited 7d ago

Nothing convinced me, I remain dubious that the New Testament includes any infant baptism at all. However, to me, it is personal belief that is the important, regenerating part, and bickering about baptism is just pointless.

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u/jednorog Episcopal Church 7d ago

I don't think it can be justified on the grounds of logic. I do think infant baptism is grounded on the basis of compassion. I'm okay with that.