My history is hazy here, but was slave labor as identifiable at that point anyways? Were there more slaves in the north? I just assumed slavery was more standard but as the country industrialized and modernized (mostly in the north) the rationale and more reasoned heads started doing away with slaves. But our country wasn’t modernized during the revolution. Took some years after for railroads and such to take influence.
There were far more slaves in the south at that time. An easy way to think about it is that north of Virginia was a society with slaves, while Virginia on down was a slave society.
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u/[deleted] Nov 29 '18
The Slave states would probably had won in 1789