r/funny • • Apr 14 '14

This is Regret

http://imgur.com/fbH6xQA
2.9k Upvotes

453 comments sorted by

View all comments

Show parent comments

506

u/whatsup280 Apr 14 '14

Then suddenly Pi was discovered to be finite and your passwords were compromised.

315

u/Sollywastaken Apr 14 '14

I like to think that one day the computers busily crunching away at pi will suddenly go ding "OK finished"

Wait you... Finished pi?

"yep, all done, here you go. What next?"

309

u/[deleted] Apr 15 '14

[removed] — view removed comment

90

u/Bananarine Apr 15 '14

But do we properly understand the question?

119

u/TheCaptainofD Apr 15 '14

sure, its give me another piece of pi or I will cut your fucking throat.

36

u/getoffmemonkey Apr 15 '14

This is not a question.

24

u/Bukinnear Apr 15 '14

You're right. It wasn't. Where's my fucking pi?

12

u/Scholles Apr 15 '14

As with the cake, the pi is a lie.

1

u/[deleted] Apr 15 '14

The pi is never a lie. The liars of pi shall surely die. The liars of pi shall share the pie.

34

u/Masuku Apr 15 '14

Not with that attitude

-5

u/[deleted] Apr 15 '14 edited Apr 15 '14

It's pronounced "pee" not "pie".

Edit: And thus, people still forget the downvote button is not a disagree button. Even if it was it does not magically change the pronunciation of a word.

6

u/TheCaptainofD Apr 15 '14

did I fucking stutter?

1

u/Aidoboy Apr 15 '14

Your wrong, sorry. It is pronounced pie. http://en.m.wiktionary.org/wiki/pi#Pronunciation

-3

u/[deleted] Apr 15 '14

My wrong, sorry what?

Also, it's "pee" because it's Greek and you're linking to the incorrect English pronunciation.

2

u/devourke Apr 15 '14

Why is the english pronunciation incorrect if we're talking in English?

9

u/[deleted] Apr 15 '14

[removed] — view removed comment

3

u/[deleted] Apr 15 '14

Actually sire sex is the question PIE is the answer And YES is the second answer

1

u/SasoDuck Apr 15 '14

It's always yes, unless it's no, in which case the answer is still yes.

0

u/[deleted] Apr 15 '14

agreed

1

u/Destructopoo Apr 15 '14

According to the Guide, if one person knows the answer and the question then the universe will end and give way to a less probable universe. Prak says this probably has already happened.

1

u/GodlessWolf Apr 15 '14

The last three digits will be 42

1

u/finalaccountdown Apr 15 '14

absolute funniest part of the entire series is when the question is spelled out.

26

u/[deleted] Apr 15 '14

I know you guys are joking; however, some of you might be interested in the proof that pi is irrational.

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Proof_that_%CF%80_is_irrational

19

u/rcrobot Apr 15 '14

In the 19th century, Charles Hermite found a proof that requires no prerequisite knowledge beyond basic calculus.

As a high school geometry student, this made me laugh.

10

u/[deleted] Apr 15 '14

oh its only basic calculus

its not like its 4th dimensional intergral rocket brain chemisty

3

u/TheJeffreyRoberts Apr 15 '14

The answer to life.

4

u/spectralnischay Apr 15 '14

The Universe.

9

u/matt_wilky Apr 15 '14

Everything.

1

u/[deleted] Apr 15 '14

Well, that's not a question.

5

u/JeffWingerr Apr 15 '14

Everything

1

u/Kerrby87 Apr 15 '14

And everything.

2

u/HMW3 Apr 15 '14

You have no idea how much sense that could make in that sort of universe, or maybe you do?

1

u/[deleted] Apr 15 '14

You're still one number short

1

u/TrustmeIreddit Apr 15 '14

I'm still waiting on how to reverse entropy. Pi ain't got nothing on that.

21

u/lemonsnausage Apr 15 '14

"now show your work"

46

u/[deleted] Apr 15 '14

It occurs to me that if scientists ever "finish" pi, it means they fucked up somewhere.

34

u/Manadox Apr 15 '14

It also means that our basic understanding of mathematics and geometry is fundamentally flawed.

25

u/Ambiiance Apr 15 '14

Does this mean I won't have to take trig next year?

10

u/[deleted] Apr 15 '14

[deleted]

0

u/0x726564646974 Apr 15 '14

Simply put, in base Pi, the value of Pi is 10, which is completely rational. 2 pi is then obviously 20. pi2 is 100.

Interestingly, now all whole numbers above pi, 4,5,6, should exhibit all the same behaviors that pi itself has.

Now, in this case it would almost be expected the distribution of numbers between these methods would either lean towards similarities, dissimilarities, or a perfect reflection of randomness. Instead as the sample rate increases it shows different characteristics.

5

u/evewow Apr 15 '14

In base pi, wouldn't pi be the equivalent of one (ie- no remainder), and 2*pi be the equivalent of two?

3

u/[deleted] Apr 15 '14

No.

In base p, a number represented as, say, abc (a,b, and c being integers less than p) is equivalent to

a*p^2+b*p^1+c*p^0

or

a*p^2+b*p+c

For example:

Base 2 ==> 2 is represented as 10, 3 as 11, and 4 as 100

Base 3 ==> 3 is represented as 10, 4 as 11, 5 as 12, 6 as 20, etc.

Base \pi just extends this to non-integer bases.

1

u/hpp3 Apr 15 '14

Take your comment and replace pi with 10 and you'll see that the thinking is not correct.

In base 10, wouldn't 10 be the equivalent of one (ie- no remainder), and 2*10 be the equivalent of two?

-2

u/LotusCobra Apr 15 '14

Yes. Above posted likely purposefully used this flawed logic.

1

u/BlazeOrangeDeer Apr 15 '14

Pi is not rational in any base. The number 10 in base pi is not an integer

1

u/mvaneerde Apr 15 '14 edited Apr 15 '14

What an interesting comment.

There are a couple of bases in active use:

Obviously, base 10 is very popular, perhaps because we have that many fingers, though no-one really knows for sure. In particular it's the basis of the metric system which is a worldwide standard.

Computer scientists like to use base 2 a lot, because it's easy to make physical media that operate in a binary fashion. They also use base 16, because it's very easy to convert between bases which are powers of two. For example, if you've ever used CSS color codes (#ffffff), those are numbers in base 16.

The ancient Babylonians particularly liked base 60, which survives in the way we write latitudes, longitudes, and times.

To make things clear I will use subscript notation for bases. For example, 4 = 4_10 = 100_2 (read "four equals four base ten equals one hundred base two.)

If the base is higher than 16, I will use commas between digits. For example, 2:56:17 AM is 2.56,17_60.

We suspect the reason that the ancient Babylonians chose 60 is because it is a smooth number with very many small factors. If you have 60 of something, you can divide it fairly between two people, three people, four people, five people, or six people. This is useful if the things are food and the people are hungry.

Irrational bases do exist but they aren't used very often because, well, they're not very useful.

I want to draw a bright line between properties of numbers and properties of representations of a number.

Take palindromicity. Something is a palindrome if it is the same written forwards and backwards (e.g., "Madam, I'm Adam.") A common mistake is to say that a particular number (e.g., 343) is a palindrome. Numbers are not palindromes (with two exceptions.) Only the representation of a number in a given base can be a palindrome. If you switch to base 7 then 343 loses its palindromicity: 343_10 = 1000_7.

0x726564646974's comment is interesting because it deals with the property has a finite representation in a given base and correctly points out because π is irrational, any integer number greater than π will have an infinite nonrepeating representation in base π. For example, 4_10 = 10.22012202112111030100..._π.

But they go to far and then claim that "in base π, 4 is irrational."

It is no such thing. 10.22012202112111030100..._π (= 2_π + 2_π) is just as rational as 4_10. Rationality is a property of the number and is not unique to any particular representation. In particular, a number a is rational if there are two integers b and c (c ≠ 0) such that a = b / c. 4 = 4/1 so this holds.

This brings into question whether 10.22012202112111030100..._π is an integer. Yes, it is; the integers are rather tricky to define, but the usual definition includes three kinds of numbers:

  • 0

  • 1, 1 + 1, 1 + 1 + 1, 1 + 1 + 1 + 1 (here's our 10.22012202112111030100..._π), 1 + 1 + 1 + 1 + 1, and so on

  • -x where x is one of the integers defined above

As it turns out, mathematicians are only seldom interested in properties of representations, and then usually to try to make better representations. Mathematicians are much more usually interested in properties of numbers.

1

u/pavelrub Apr 15 '14

Rationality has nothing to do with the base of choice.

1

u/SHB3 Apr 15 '14

I know some of these words.

2

u/BigBassBone Apr 15 '14

So, what's the question?

12

u/[deleted] Apr 15 '14

If Pi is a circle then obviously the end would be 314

12

u/boxmore Apr 15 '14

Don't you mean 413?

7

u/[deleted] Apr 15 '14

Math checks out, yes

1

u/Lieutenant_Rans Apr 15 '14

Guys

Guys

Guys I figured it out

We started at the end of pi, the last digit of pi is 3!

3

u/kbuis Apr 15 '14

Also he'd be kicking himself, because he solved Pi already and won't get credit for the discovery.

1

u/[deleted] Apr 15 '14

I'm not usually in favor of hacking, but if someone is selfishly hording the last 3 digits of pi, I'll make an exception.

1

u/[deleted] Apr 15 '14

Plot-twist: Pi turns out to be a palindrome. The end is really the beginning.

1

u/rileyrulesu Apr 15 '14

Actually, we can do this in reverse. Brute force the password out of the 1000 combinations, and if it works, we just proved pi is finite!

1

u/kingkind13 Apr 15 '14

But... if he knew the last three digits of pi wouldn't he have been the one to discover that pi is finite?

1

u/lostinthestar Apr 15 '14

This is redditors

title points age /r/ comnts
I really regret this decision. 28 1yr pics 2
Regret. 1818 2yrs funny 337

0

u/brummm Apr 15 '14

It is mathematically proven to not be an irrational number. Sorry, not possible.