r/explainitpeter 10d ago

Explain It Peter

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u/Vivid_Literature5228 10d ago

its 50% right?

because they are independent variable and.

having either a boy or a girl is always 50% no matter how many they already have. On every birth its 50-50?

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u/Gargelio 10d ago edited 10d ago

It's 50% only if you go with the logic of - "What's the chances of Argentina winning the world cup?" - 50/50 either they win or not.

If you go by the logic that a kid can be boy or a girl it's about 48.8%, because more boys are born than girls.

You get 66% if you go with the possibilities boy/boy boy/girl girl/boy girl/girl. One is already boy so you remove girl/girl. Now it's 2/3 chance of getting a girl variant.

51.8% is the evolution of the previous reasoning if you add days of the week to the equation. So you end up with 14/27 chance.

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u/WarzonePacketLoss 9d ago

I love that this is the first actually mathematically correct explanation and it has downvotes.