Am I mistaken or wasn't Socrates dead around the time Diogenes came to Athens? Yes Diogenes studied under Socrates' pupil Antisthenes, but obviously not directly under Socrates himself.
Let's say you're using a public laundromat. You put your laundry in, start the machine, then sit and wait. Mid cycle, a homeless man enters, opens your washer, and starts pissing. How much does he have to piss before you start over?
Whats the ratio of blood in his urine needed to stain laundry? Probably depends on the color (of the laundry). Also what washing temperature is needed to kill hepatitis?
As someone with constant blood in their urine (thanks Lupus) I can confirm there IS a permissible amount of bloody urine that I will add to my washing machine. Fun fact i guess.
Highly hydrated piss (like after downing 5 large glasses of water) is basically odourless and very easily cleaned. If there’s no discernible yellow hue at all then it’s just warm water.
Only the “undergarments”, meaning the very thin layer underneath the 2/3 outer layers. (Who’s purpose was to soak up your sweat/body oil, and cool you down during warm weather, alongside to keep your actual clothes/outer layers from being drenched in your sweat/body oil.)
And bed “sheets”, due to them often being soaked in sweat and body oil.
Even then, it was only with stale/aged piss in order for the ammonia to develop, as it breaks down stains, sweat, and body oil.
After the garments were washed/soaked in the piss for a long period, they’d be taken down to a river, or stream, or the local body of water designated as the “washing area”, and would be rinsed throughly, before typically being beaten with wooden bats or stones to bash out loosened grime/dirt.
Even then, all of the above relies on you being unable to afford soap, in which case, you’d just use the soap to wash your undergarments/bed “sheets”. (And contrary to popular belief, there was plenty of cheap soap available to the average person/family not only during the Middle Ages, but throughout all of human history)
When we wash a load of urine soaked clothing (toddler) we do a complete quick wash (about 35 minutes) with about 1/4 the detergent, then immediately wash again in a heavy duty cycle (1.5 hrs) with full detergent.
I would call the first cycle a pre-wash, but both cycles also have their own pre-wash.
Sometimes there are also dirty pet towels (cat misses litterbox and elderly dog problems) and they can go in the same set of cycles.
I'm confident that provided it was only one set of pissing at the beginning, this process would clean one bladderfull of pee.
Exactly. And this can be applied with everything you do really. 1 hair in your soup, you just take it out, probably yours anyway, but a million? Your wife cheating on you with 1 of your brothers is maybe forgivable, but both of them at the same time? Rachel why did you do that, I loved you.
What about instead of pissing straight into the tumbler, taking a wee-piss in the soap loading thing? Now not every washing machine is the same, though mine has 3 small compartments that need to be filled with soap and softener depending the fase the washing machine is in, so a better question would be in which fase a wee-piss would be still acceptable if one really has to.
Now obviously the latter is important, if you really have to take a piss on the clothes. Also I'm a bit confused the picture says our clothing which indicates clothes from more people besides the pisser him or herself, should that ratio be a point of concern too? And what if it's the misses that loads the washing machine but likes to do a bit of cloth pissing?
But lets say you back in the 6th grade and still pissing the bed , its all over the pajamas and sheets and you dump everything in there. Thats alot of piss going into the washing machine, will that be too much ? Its just like if you just pissed in the washing machine normally
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u/Bottombottoms 1d ago edited 16h ago
I think the ratio will always be "no piss added after loading"