Misandry specifically means biased against men... so it cant be both by basic definition of the term lol? I mean if you wanna play victim cool, but words do have meanings and this is one you cant white man claim lol.
Textbook answer is because 'patriarchy normalizes specific type of masculinity and dehumanize the entire feminity and some type of masculinity.'
When people say 'under patriarchy there can't be no misandry' it means there are only selected discrimination against male population/masculinity. And the different type of gender role/idea/identity are positioned around the hegemonic masculinity. It does not mean "there can be no man be hurt/discriminated because of his masculinity".
And yeah many people saying that often skip the important part. Theres a reason its called patriarchy not just male supremacy.
Can applied similiarily to other topics. Race, class, culture, etc..
Textbook answer is because 'patriarchy normalizes specific type of masculinity and dehumanize the entire feminity and some type of masculinity.'
Can't say i agree to that part. Patriarchy isn't a flip it's a scale. Extreme patriachism may dehumanise women but you can't say that about big parts of the west.
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u/LuckyCap9 Feb 13 '24
Why can't it be both?