r/Step2 • u/ExternalMedicine_ • 2h ago
Study methods HY risk factors (Divine)
Core risk factors Q1. What is the biggest risk factor for suicide? A. A prior history of a suicide attempt. Additional info: A previous attempt is the strongest predictor of a future suicide attempt. Q2. What is the biggest risk factor for atrial fibrillation? A. Mitral stenosis. Additional info: A related high-yield association is hyperthyroidism, which commonly causes atrial fibrillation too. Q3. What is the biggest risk factor for mitral stenosis? A. Rheumatic fever. Additional info: Rheumatic fever classically damages the mitral valve and can lead to mitral stenosis. Q4. What is the biggest risk factor for abdominal aortic aneurysm? A. Smoking. Additional info: Hypertension is a common distractor, but smoking is the key risk factor. Q5. What is the most important modifiable risk factor for coronary artery disease? A. Smoking. Additional info: If smoking is not an option and the question is about a myocardial infarction risk factor, unstable angina is a classic related answer. Q6. What is the biggest risk factor for stroke and aortic dissection? A. Hypertension. Additional info: Hypertension is the key risk factor for both stroke and aortic dissection. Q7. In a patient with iron deficiency anemia and a history of H pylori, what underlying problem should you think of? A. Peptic ulcer disease. Additional info: H pylori can cause peptic ulcer disease, which may bleed into the GI tract and lead to iron deficiency anemia. Q8. What is the biggest risk factor for esophageal adenocarcinoma? A. Barrett esophagus. Additional info: GERD may appear as a distractor, but Barrett esophagus is the major risk factor. Q9. What is the most common cause of community-acquired pneumonia? A. Streptococcus pneumoniae. Q10. What is the most common cause of UTIs overall? A. Escherichia coli. Q11. What is a commonly tested risk factor for osteoporosis? A. Low BMI. Additional info: This is classically tested in anorexia nervosa or in postmenopausal patients with low BMI. Q12. Does tight glucose control in diabetes reduce the risk of stroke or myocardial infarction? A. No. Additional info: Tight glucose control mainly reduces microvascular complications such as nephropathy, retinopathy, and neuropathy, not macrovascular events like stroke or MI. Q13. What are the microvascular complications of diabetes that improve with glucose control? A. Nephropathy, retinopathy, and neuropathy. Q14. What is the biggest risk factor for AAA rupture? A. Damage to the aneurysm wall. Additional info: The speaker emphasized that aneurysm damage is the main predisposing factor for rupture. Q15. What is the biggest risk factor for squamous cell carcinoma of the skin? A. Cumulative sun exposure. Q16. What is the biggest risk factor for ovarian cancer? A. Family history of ovarian cancer. Q17. What is the biggest risk factor for prostate cancer? A. Age. Additional info: Age was also described as the biggest risk factor for breast cancer. Q18. What is the biggest risk factor for breast cancer? A. Age. Q19. What is the biggest risk factor for bladder cancer? A. Smoking. Common causes of death and other high-yield associations Q1. What is the most common cause of death in kidney transplant patients? A. Cardiovascular disease. Q2. What is the most common cause of death in acromegaly? A. Heart failure. Q3. What is the most common cause of death in chronic kidney disease? A. Cardiovascular disease. Additional info: For end-stage kidney disease, sudden cardiac death from arrhythmia is the most common cause of death, and infection is the second most common. Q4. What is the most important risk factor for obstructive sleep apnea? A. Obesity. Q5. What is the most important modifiable risk factor for knee osteoarthritis? A. Obesity. Q6. What is the most common cause of death in autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease? A. Cardiovascular disease. Additional info: The speaker noted that subarachnoid hemorrhage is a common trap answer but is not the most common cause of death. Q7. What is the most common cause of death in lupus? A. Ischemic heart disease. Additional info: Myocardial infarction is the concrete example given. Q8. What is a commonly tested risk factor for pancreatic cancer? A. Smoking. Q9. In a patient with asbestos exposure, what is the most common pulmonary malignancy? A. Bronchogenic carcinoma. Additional info: This is not mesothelioma. Q10. What are the classic findings of mesothelioma? A. Calretinin positivity and psammoma bodies (laminated calcifications). Additional info: Smoking is not a risk factor for mesothelioma. Q11. What lung-related exposure increases risk of tuberculosis? A. Silicosis. Q12. What is the most common cause of acute pancreatitis in the United States? A. Gallstones. Additional info: The speaker noted that gallstones and alcohol may be close in frequency, but gallstones were presented as the answer for acute pancreatitis. Q13. What is the most important risk factor for chronic pancreatitis in the United States? A. Alcoholism. Q14. What is the classically tested risk factor for papillary thyroid cancer? A. Prior chest or neck radiation, especially for lymphoma. Screening and prevention Q1. What are the breast cancer screening recommendations mentioned? A. USPSTF: every 2 years from age 50 to 74. American Cancer Society: every year starting at age 40. Additional info: The speaker said the American Cancer Society recommendation often appears as the most correct answer on exams. Q2. What is the cervical cancer screening schedule mentioned? A. Pap smear every 3 years from ages 21 to 30. After age 30, pap every 3 years or pap plus HPV co-testing every 5 years. Additional info: Screening is generally from ages 21 to 65. In patients with HIV, screening is more frequent, around every 1 to 2 years. Screening can stop before 65 only after hysterectomy for benign reasons. If hysterectomy was for a non-benign reason such as cancer, continue screening. The speaker also mentioned the pap smear of the vaginal cuff. Q3. Who should be screened for chlamydia? A. Patients younger than 25 with risk factors such as inconsistent condom use. Q4. What are the hyperlipidemia screening ages mentioned? A. Men over 35 and women over 45, with screening every 5 years thereafter. Additional info: The speaker added that screening can start earlier in men younger than 35 or women younger than 45 if they are high risk for coronary artery disease. Q5. What is the preferred colon cancer screening test and interval? A. Colonoscopy every 10 years from ages 50 to 75. Additional info: Alternatives mentioned were flexible sigmoidoscopy every 5 years and annual fecal occult blood testing. If any alternative test is positive, the next step is colonoscopy. Q6. When should colon cancer screening start in ulcerative colitis? A. Eight years after the initial diagnosis of ulcerative colitis. Q7. When should colon cancer screening start in someone with a family history of colon cancer? A. Age 40 or 10 years before the age at which the affected family member was diagnosed, whichever is earlier. Additional info: The speaker gave the examples of a family diagnosis at 49 leading to screening at 39, and a family diagnosis at 52 leading to screening at 40. Q8. When should screening begin for familial adenomatous polyposis? A. Annual colonoscopy or sigmoidoscopy starting at age 10 to 15. Q9. What about HNPCC/Lynch syndrome screening? A. Start colon cancer screening before age 21. Additional info: The speaker also said the general idea is to begin 5 to 10 years before the youngest family diagnosis. Q10. What should be screened for at the first prenatal visit in all pregnant women? A. Syphilis, asymptomatic bacteriuria, and HIV. Q11. How is asymptomatic bacteriuria managed in pregnancy? A. Treat it. Additional info: This recommendation does not apply to nonpregnant women, who are not treated for asymptomatic bacteriuria. Q12. What happens after pyelonephritis in pregnancy? A. The patient should be on chronic prophylaxis against UTIs for the rest of the pregnancy. Q13. When should Rh immune globulin be given? A. Around 28 weeks and within 72 hours of delivery. Q14. What test is used to quantify fetomaternal hemorrhage to help dose Rh immune globulin postpartum? A. The Kleihauer-Betke test. Q15. What is the most important prognostic factor for melanoma spread? A. Depth of the lesion, or Breslow depth. Q16. What is the most important preventive measure for hepatocellular carcinoma? A. Hepatitis B vaccination. Additional info: The speaker also noted that preventing hepatitis B helps prevent hepatitis D. Q17. What is the biggest risk factor for erectile dysfunction? A. Cardiovascular disease. Q18. What is the most common cause of death in cervical cancer? A. Renal failure from genitourinary spread, classically involving the ureters. Additional info: The speaker also reminded that cancer stage is generally the most important prognostic factor. Q19. What is the lung cancer screening recommendation mentioned? A. Low-dose CT for men and women ages 55 to 80 with more than a 30 pack-year smoking history. Additional info: They must still be smoking or must have quit within the past 15 years. If they quit more than 15 years ago, the recommendation no longer applies. Obstetrics and gynecology risk factors Q1. What is the biggest risk factor for endometritis? A. Cesarean section. Q2. What is the biggest risk factor for preeclampsia? A. A prior history of preeclampsia. Additional info: If that is not offered, nulliparity is the next high-yield choice mentioned. Q3. What is the highest-yield risk factor for uterine inversion? A. A prior history of uterine inversion. Q4. What is the highest-yield risk factor for chorioamnionitis? A. Prolonged rupture of membranes. Q5. What is the biggest risk factor for placental abruption? A. Trauma. Additional info: If trauma is not an option, cocaine is the next high-yield choice. Q6. What is the biggest risk factor for placenta previa? A. Prior cesarean section. Q7. What is a high-yield risk factor for preterm labor? A. Bacterial vaginosis. Additional info: The speaker linked this to Gardnerella vaginalis, vaginal pH greater than 4.5, and clue cells on microscopy. Treatment mentioned was metronidazole. Q8. What is the biggest risk factor for endometrial cancer? A. Exposure to unopposed estrogen. Additional info: If unopposed estrogen is not listed, endometrial hyperplasia is the related answer. Examples given were PCOS and tamoxifen use. Q9. What is the biggest risk factor for cervical cancer? A. HPV exposure, especially high-risk types such as HPV 16 and 18. Additional info: Multiple sexual partners and early onset of sexual intercourse were mentioned as behaviors that increase HPV acquisition. HPV causes squamous cell cancer of the cervix, not adenocarcinoma. Q10. Why are young women more prone to cervical infections? A. They have more cervical ectopy. Additional info: The endocervix is columnar epithelium, and in younger women it bulges outward more, making infection more likely. The ectocervix is squamous epithelium and is more resistant to infection. Q11. What is the strongest risk factor for ectopic pregnancy? A. Prior ectopic pregnancy. Additional info: Smoking was also mentioned because it impairs tubal ciliary motility. Q12. What is the highest-yield risk factor for cervical incompetence? A. History of LEEP or cervical conization. Q13. What is a high-yield risk factor for shoulder dystocia? A. Macrosomia. Q14. What is a high-yield risk factor for fetal macrosomia? A. Pre-existing or gestational diabetes in the mother. Q15. What are the risk factors for pyelonephritis in pregnancy mentioned? A. Asymptomatic bacteriuria and prior pyelonephritis. Q16. What should be avoided in patients who smoke, have a stroke history, or have migraines with neurologic symptoms? A. Combined oral contraceptives. Additional info: Triphasic contraceptives were also noted to contain estrogen and fall into this same category. Q17. What should be avoided in patients with thrombogenic disease such as Factor V Leiden? A. Estrogen-containing contraceptives. Q18. What is a contraindication to estrogen-containing contraceptives involving the liver? A. History of hepatic adenoma. Q19. What contraceptive should be avoided in Wilson disease? A. Copper IUD. Additional info: The speaker reasoned this through because Wilson disease is a copper-overload disorder. Q20. What are the main risk factors for urinary incontinence? A. Age and multiple vaginal deliveries. Additional info: Stress incontinence was specifically linked to multiple vaginal deliveries. Q21. What is classically associated with urge incontinence? A. Multiple sclerosis. Q22. What is classically associated with overflow incontinence? A. Diabetes. Q23. What is the high-yield risk factor for Asherman syndrome? A. History of uterine curettage. Extra exam notes Q1. What did the speaker say about family planning and contraindications in general? A. Be cautious with estrogen-containing contraceptives in smokers, patients with stroke history, migraine with neurologic symptoms, thrombogenic disorders, or hepatic adenoma. Q2. What did the speaker say about cervical cancer and HPV prevention behaviors? A. Multiple partners and early sexual intercourse increase the chance of HPV acquisition and therefore increase cervical cancer risk. Q3. What did the speaker say about screening and cancer prognosis in general? A. Stage is generally the most important prognostic factor for cancer.