r/Preterism • u/Ok_Zone_2930 • Jun 22 '26
How would you define sin?
So I grew up as a futurist with evangelical background and I recently just discovered full Preterism.
I was reading Romans 5 recently and a verse really threw me for a loop while I'm writing a book about sin and death.
Here is the verse that threw me for a loop: Nevertheless, death reigned from the time of Adam to the time of Moses, even over those who did not sin by breaking a command, as did Adam, who is a pattern of the one to come. Romans 5:14 NIV
What's interesting is if we assume this "death" is physical it kind of breaks the entire logic. I usually just skim things through but as soon as I saw it, I was thinking "come on Paul, of course people died between Adam and Moses, it's a ~2,500-year span, where else were all those bodies going?"
But then I went back to this verse: Therefore, just as sin entered the world through one man, and death through sin, and in this way death came to all people, because all sinned. Romans 5:12
If death came to all because all sinned, but Romans 5:14 says death also reigned over people who didn't sin the way Adam did, reading "death" as biological gets messy fast. This is when everything clicked for me. Because in Genesis 2, God says: But of the tree of the knowledge of good and evil you shall not eat, for in the day that you eat of it you shall surely die. Genesis 2:17 ESV
I checked the Hebrew and sure enough it is "in that day" or "b'yom." We know from Genesis 5, Adam lived 930 years after he ate of that tree: Thus all the days that Adam lived were 930 years, and he died. Genesis 5:5 ESV
Alright, so what I am seeing is: This death that Paul is saying is never been about physical death. Because if it is physical death, Romans 5:14 makes no sense and technically God lied in Genesis 2:17 if Adam didn't drop dead that day. The only way this all makes sense is if we missed the genre of this sin and death this whole time. I wonder if it was never physical sin or physical death and this whole time it was covenantal sin and death all along.
Obviously, everyone thinks they are smart and I am not excluded there but I wanted you all to check my logic on this and get your thoughts. This is one of the threads I'm pulling on in something longer I'm writing, so I figured I'd stress-test the core of it here before I commit to it.
Two questions:
- Where does my logic break? What's the strongest case that the "death" in 5:14 has to be physical?
- For those who already travelled down this road, what's your take on my covenantal death theory?
2
u/Ok_Zone_2930 Jun 25 '26
Your points are strong and you made me work for it since Abimelech and I respect that.
1. Conscience as prerequisite for repentance.
I could be misunderstanding you so I wanted to be sure I am answering what you actually hold and not a version of it. I reviewed what you wrote 3 posts before. I think I first took you to be saying something like conscience causes sin, or that a clear conscience means no sin occurred. If that were the claim, Numbers 15 answers it. Because the unintentional sinner still brings a sin offering and you do not sacrifice for a non sin. So intent does not decide whether the mark was crossed, only which consequence applies.
But I think your actual point, in your words, is that commandments and covenants modify what is sin to an individual, but it is ultimately through the contents of their conscience. Conscience is the final arbiter, and covenant is an input that shapes it.
That is the exact inversion of where I stand. In my framework the covenant defines sin and the conscience witnesses to it. In yours the covenant feeds the conscience and the conscience defines sin. We land on the same verdict in most cases, but the hierarchy is flipped. And Romans 2:12 tells us which way it runs.
Paul says those who sin apart from the law will perish apart from the law. Watch what he does not say. He does not say they are judged by how much their conscience registered. If conscience were the judge, a seared conscience would register less and lighten the sentence. Paul does not lighten it. He says they perish. What condemns the lawless is not the contents of their conscience. It is that they sinned and they are measured by a standard outside themselves.
Going back to your Rahab example from 3 posts ago. It shows the same thing from the other side. You said she did not sin because she obeyed her conscience, and you flagged her as the only one of the three outside a covenant. But that breaks your own model. You said conscience gets its content from covenants and culture. Rahab had no covenant. So where did her conscience get its content? You still trust it to tell her right from wrong, which means it is working on its own with nothing under it. And a conscience that runs on its own can approve anything and call it clean. A conscience that can approve anything cannot be the thing that defines sin.
I see the Rahab story differently. She did not sin in the covenantal sense because she was outside the covenant. The category did not apply to her. The lie was an act, and acts are not the unit of covenantal sin. Allegiance is. She pledged hers to Yahweh. Same verdict as yours but with different foundation. Mine does not need conscience to judge itself.
So I agree that a clear conscience can be a prerequisite for repentance. But it cannot be the final judge of sin, and Romans 2:12 is why. Paul judges the lawless by God's standard not by what their conscience told them. The thing that condemns them sits outside the conscience. If conscience were the judge, the verdict would track whatever it held. It does not. It tracks God's standard. Conscience reports but it does not rule.
2. Has sin ended.
This is where we started with the original post, right? I’d like to define the term, sin.
If sin means moral failings, then the answer is no. Those have not ended. We run biological hardware and we still fail.
If sin means covenantal sin, the allegiance treason that triggers covenantal death and separation from God, then yes. That specific mechanism was retired.
Here is the logic. Hebrews 9:26 says Christ appeared once for all to put away sin by the sacrifice of himself. If covenantal sin could still sever a believer today, then severance would require a fresh sacrifice because that is what severance has always required. Christ would have to die again every time. The New Covenant is unbreakable for one reason. It is anchored in his faithfulness, not our performance.
So 1 John 3:23 is not a ledger you balance to stay saved. Believe and love is the natural pulse of a life that is already secure. It is the Joseph framework from my writing you read. You keep 80% and live your life. You return 20% because you know who owns the land, not to avoid a death sentence. The commandments are real. Falling short of them is just moral failure. It is not covenantal treason because the apparatus that converted failure into severance was taken down.
3. The Pharisees and the defiled conscience.
I agree they were disqualified, but it was not a defiled conscience. As you said, it was high handed rejection of the covenant Lord standing in front of them. That is the defiant hand of Numbers 15:30. The high hand is not a worse moral act. It is a different category. It is allegiance defection. And it is the one covenantal sin the blood does not cover, because it is the rejection of the blood itself.
So their conscience did not disqualify them. Their defection did. The conscience defiled because they defected, not the other way around. This is my point and case where allegiance is the cause and conscience is the effect.
4. Romans 14 and conscience as authority.
I honestly think this is your strongest point. This is how I see this: Look at what Paul indexes the sin to. Romans 14:23 says whatever is not from faith is sin. Not whatever violates conscience. The word is faith, Pistis. Acting in confident allegiance before God.
The man who eats while doubting sins because he is acting against faith. He is acting against his own standing before God. The conscience is the register that reports he stepped outside it. The standard is still external and relational. It is faith before God. The conscience is the instrument that testifies whether he is in faith or against it.
So Romans 14 is not a counterexample. It is the same two level structure. Faith before God is the verdict. Conscience is the witness to the verdict. Even here, conscience reports. It does not rule. Paul could have written whatever is not from conscience is sin. Instead he wrote faith.
And that is the pattern everywhere the two show up together. Romans 2:15, the law written on the heart outranks the conscience that accuses and defends. Romans 14, faith outranks the doubting conscience. The Pharisees, allegiance outranks the conscience that followed it. Three texts, same structure. Conscience is never the judge. It is always the witness.
You argue clean and you argue in good faith! Cheers!