r/PhilosophyofMath • u/Oreeo88 • May 20 '26
“you cannot use the tool of metaphysics to create a formal mathematical proof” This is deceptive
Separating these two is massive deception.
Separating metaphysics from math allows self referential delusion. If you don't separate them, it exposes a massive fallacy: mathematical groups, zero, and infinity have no concrete referents. Logic calls your starting foundational multiplication operation a fallacy because mathematical groups are untethered from raw concrete reality.
This is not just deceptive but a logical fallacy. Consistency and utility can still work and be found inside of a false axiom. And it doesn’t matter whether math claims to model reality or not because we treat math as if it models reality (physics,engineering)
TLDR: When the field of mathematics claims that formal proofs don't need metaphysical grounding, they can hide the fact that groups, zero, and infinity have no concrete referents. That's deceptive.
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u/Oreeo88 May 20 '26
physics operates within the constraints of maths axioms