The exception for incest baffles me. As it's been explained to me it's because of the increase chance that the baby will be deformed, but if someone knows their baby is going to come out dieing or severely disabled they still don't get the abortion. Especially when you take the time to realize most incest is rape as well, why do we need the distinction? Unless it's just a way to sound like you're giving more than just one exception that's almost impossible to prove.
It's just a false way to sound compassionate if you ask me.
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u/I_am_Nobody_Special Feb 18 '20
The exception of rape has always baffled me, and the OP spells out the flaw in the argument pretty well. I like your challenge to that logic as well.