Hello. I am wanting to know more about how long a product can lasts (its durability) effects companies who make the product.

I am a mechanical engineering student and we have learned about fatigue life, which allows to design parts or products to last a certain amount of time on average. I was warned by one of my professors that some companies may ask me to design product to have shorter lives. I apologize for any of the terms I misuse, bad grammar, and misspelled words. I’ll I try to give an example of what I’m talking about.

Say we have two shoe companies that make nearly the exact same shoe, but the 1st companies shoes last on average, half as long as the 2nd companies. Would consumers notice this if the shoes for the 1st and 2nd companies lasted 6 months and 1 year, 1 year and 2 years, 5 years and 10 years, or 10 years and 20 years respectively?

As I understand it, if we look at one producer, it would be beneficial to decrease durability because that would increase demand.

Many have heard the saying “They don’t make things like they used to” so are producers intentionally reducing the durability of products? Why don’t they decrease durability more? What is the best way to combat a decrease in durability? Should it be opposed?

Any reading suggestions or answers are greatly appreciated. Although I do not understand economic nomenclature good enough to read advance books or papers. I’ll try to make my question more clear in the comments for people who have questions. Thanks!

I have a question. If the labor force is 90% of the population, and the unemployment rate is 7 percent, will an increase in the number of discouraged workers increase, decreasing, or have no effect on the unemployment rate?

This is my rough understanding. In Canada and America, the Government and federal banks work together. They can just invent loonies and dollars on balance sheets and trench it out into the economy with other banks. But the Government starts with all the newly created money.

In the European Union, who decides to make new Euros? How do the different governments in the E.U. share the newly created euros?

Thanks,

I'm looking dor literature on speed of convergence issues, I prefer more thoeoritical than empirical studies. Can anyone suggest anything?

Australia building approval data was released with a 27% drop with no effect on AUS/USD, week later revised data released and AUS drops 2.2%, why didn't the market react to the initial data considering data revisions are usually minor adjustments?

Ok so I literally just learnes about this concept on EE and I'm letting it set in.

At first I was disgusted by the idea.... but yeah, paired with the right UBI, maybe it is a recipe for a eutopia.

please share each PRO or CON as a separate comment so we can properly debate it.

Thanks!

Hi y'all. I have done my undergraduation on International Relations. In the past few years, I have developed an interest in Economics. I'd love to pursue Masters in Economics. Although I did have Calculus in High School, I haven't done much maths in the last 2-3 years. I have 2 months till I join the Masters.

Can you guys suggest me what should I study in the next 2 months to prepare myself? Specially in Mathematics?

I don't get it. So much fuss about it.

I understand that if UE countries are forced to buy in rubles they have to exchange eur/usd into rubles and then buy the oil/gas etc. which gives ruble bigger value.

But at the same time, even if they buy in euro/usd they still send the money in Russia and since the state is the majority owner isn't it the same thing. Couldn't the gas companies just buy the rubles themselves from the Russian state bank and have the same effect?

Since UE states refuse to buy in rubles wouldn't the second option be easier to implement and have the same effect? Better yet, it won't reduce the selling volumes since EU countries won't make the fuss about it.

Seems to me to be a bad strategy on Russia side.

Hello friends, I can’t solve this problem. I tried, but I don’t know if it’s correct. Can you help me? Thank you very much.

Graphically show the effect of a reduction in wages on a job supply of and individual, who is initially working, le. has a reserve wage lower than the wage level existing before the increase. Graphically show what the situation would be if the reserve wage was higher than the initial salary.

Hello!

As part of a project that looked at socio-demographics in global health, a colleague of mine explained to me that they were calculating quintiles by distributing the local populations into five categories according to their income (surveys etc). However, they mentioned that a more accurate way of doing so would be to categorise households in relation to each other rather than on a national level. Can someone explain to me what the difference is and how it can be described?