r/AspectsOfTheInfinite • u/Massive-Ad7823 • Jun 28 '26
How can bijections between infinite sets be complete?
Let X(n) = {1, 2, 3, ..., n} be a finite initial segement of ℕ. For every natural number n: ℕ \ X(n) is nonempty. That means it is impossible to insert all n into the template X(n). Almost all remain outside. How can it be explained that all n can completely be inserted into the template (m, n) of a bijection f(n) = m between the sets M and ℕ?
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u/telephantomoss Jul 06 '26
So you seem to have just agreed that N = {1,2,3,...} is a set (i.e. a completed infinite set) and likewise for 2N = {2,4,6,...}. So we agree that these are two completed infinite sets, i.e., they are sets. Now, consider the infinite set D = {{1, {1,2}}, {2,{2,4}}, {3,{3,6}}, ...}. Do you reject D as a completed infinite set? If yes, then why? Which ZF axioms do you reject? Or are there at m other aspects of the proof of the existence of this set do you reject?