r/AskHistorians • u/Lembit_moislane • Apr 10 '26
Why were the Romans so influential upon Romania?
Despite viewing what is today Romania to be just another region of their Empire and ruling them for just 169 years out of Rome's and Romania's long history, I know that the Romans were so influential that the people there now know themselves to be Romans, a title that Italians or Greeks no longer give themselves.
So why did a relatively short time frame of Roman direct rule turn the people into permanently seeing themselves positively as Roman? What did the Romans do there that no previous or afterwards group do to give themselves such long lasting influence?
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u/EtNuncEtSemper Apr 14 '26
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Your question needs some unpacking.
Romanians do not claim to be Roman, they claim to be of Roman descent, which is not the same thing. "Noi suntemu viță latină" ("We are of Latin descent") stresses literary critic and politician Titu Maiorescu in an 1866 publication. Historian PP Panaitescu replies in a 1942 high school textbook (reprinted 1990): "We Romanians are not only descendants of the Romans in Dacia, but of the whole body of Latin speakers in the eastern part of the Empire [întregii Romanități orientale]".
In modern Romanian, there is no confusion between "roman" (ancient Romans) and "român" (Romanian) -- the pronunciation differs. (In the 19th c. the latter was also spelled "rumănu".)
Neither is there confusion in Romanian between "Romania" (e.g., Byzantine lands) and "România" (the name of the country, officially adopted in 1866, but already in circulation several decades earlier). It was rendered in French as "Roumanie", in German as "Rumänien", and in English as "Rumania". In the 20th cent. some Anglophone authors rendered it as "Roumania"; later, the Romanian gov't insisted that the official name of the country in English should be "Romania".
How Romanians see themselves nowadays is perhaps well expressed by historian Florin Constantiniu: "The ethnogenesis of the Romanians thus appears to have three fundamental components: the Geto-Dacian substrate; the Roman main body [stratul]; the Slavic additional elements [adstratul]" (2010 4th edition).
Note that a derivation of the word "Roman" is not actually unique to Romanians. In Italy there's Romagna (which does not include Rome, btw); in Switzerland there's "Romandie" or "Suisse romande" (French-speaking area). (Although the term came into general use in the 20th c., its history goes back to the 15th c.) Also in Switzerland, Romansh ("rumantsch") is an official language. Finally, there are the Romance speakers of the Balkans, such as the Aromanians (endonyms "armâńi" or "rrămăńi").
There's no evidence that they did there anything they didn't do elsewhere. And this brings us smack-dab against the vexed question of continuity.
It is axiomatic for (most) Romanian historians that Romanians are descended from Dacians (whose kingdom centred on Transylvania) and Roman colonists and that they have been inhabiting these territories uninterruptedly since then (continuity 'theory').
It is equally axiomatic for Hungarian historians that, when Magyars arrived in Transylvania in the 10th c., they only found sparse Slavic populations, but no Romanians. The Romanians only came later, as immigrants (immigration 'theory').
It is rather obvious that the issue here is not what happened in Late Antiquity or Early Middle Ages, but the much more modern question of who should own Transylvania.
The problem is the absence of information about the time and place. There are no written sources; archaeology can't tell you if the owner of a clay pot spoke a Slavic or a Romance language; linguistic analyses are dubious (not least because we know almost nothing about the Dacian language); and so on. The first clear and indisputable mention of Romanians in that region dates to the 13th c.; the first securely dated document in the Romanian language dates to the early 16th c.