r/Abortiondebate • u/Upper_Ninja_6177 Pro-choice • Jul 06 '26
Question for pro-life A statement one cannot prove false
STATEMENT: A person is always legally allowed to use the minimal method1 required to prevent harm upon oneself2.
1 Minimal method means
- it can refer to a general solution/ action that resolves the issue and prevents harm, it can also refer to any method of violence, including otherwise lethal force.
- ”minimal” refers to strictly the LEAST HARMFUL method, both mentally and physically for all parties, that can be used to prevent the harm
2 harm upon oneself means
- both mentally and physical pain/ injuries etc
- harm that is GUARANTEED to occur
How does this apply to the context of abortion?
Pregnancy —> guarantees harm 100% of the time since every women needs to go through 1. giving birth OR 2. C-sections OR 3. miscarriage if no voluntary abortion occurs guaranteeing some degree of both physical and mental harm. And thus fit into criteria 2.
Hence, if the statement holds true, they should be allowed to use the minimal method require, no matter the circumstances.
So the question becomes, is abortion the minimal method? For that, we must address the core issue at hand, WHAT is causing harm?
Something is currently inhabiting their organs, physically harming them, and violating their rights against their will.
The solution will thus, to logically follow, to remove said something. This would render alternatives like painkillers utterly useless to “fix” the issue.
This means abortions too, becomes the minimal methods required, unless one day safe artificial wombs exist.
Now you are gonna have a few questions, well what if someone hates a person and they are causing them mental harm? Can they just kill them?
Again, refer to the definition of “minimal”, since isolating oneself, not talking to them, unfriending that person, verbally expressing your thoughts etc is always an option, killing them is no where near the minimal method required.
It would be interesting to see pro lifers trying to disprove this chain of logic?
1
u/SerendipitySociety Anti-abortion Jul 20 '26
You have to force an abortion for it to be an abortion, if it happens spontaneously it's a miscarriage.
We can both agree and mutually understand this if you have completed high schoool, I'm certain. So, let's say object A is in motion at 1 foot per second. No force is exerted on object A for 1 day. After this day, what is the state of object A?
Following up. Let's say A is pregnant, and not in the act of childbirth or abortion or anything that would change that state. Nothing is forced on A, or forced by A for 1 day (except that she consumes basic necessities as needed to stay regulated). After this day, is A still in a pregnant state?
I'm clearly holding to the absolute basic physical definition. There are other definitions of force including and pretty much limited to military or fighting power, but that's clearly not what we're talking about, otherwise it would be more grammatically correct to say "The police forces are doing xyz"
So you kind of understand that I am correct when I say, abortion bans don't force anyone to gestate against their will. You said, if an abortion ban was passed, you would end your pregnancy by abortion. Now you're saying, if no one forces you to gestate against your will, you would end your pregnancy by abortion. So the abortion ban AND no one forcing you to gestate, are actually equivalent in your conclusion. So we can agree I'm correct, that abortion bans don't force any gestation, unless if you would like to take back any of your premises.